What are your stats ? Montecarlosimulation of Trading / Moneymangement

eegozi,

I agree with everything you stated excepting the above. You calculate expectancy correctly (.88R), but that expectancy would be multiplied by his risk of 2% PER TRADE. That means he would grow his account by 1.76% PER TRADE in a perfect world, not per 100 trades as you state.

Kind Regards,

fastcar

I'm not sure I agree with this. You are correct that I did my calculations incorrectly ...it should have been the following:

If you win 40% of the time thats 40 trades/100 TOTAL trades.
40 * 1.72R/trade = 68.8R in wins over 40 trades./100 TOTAL trades

If you lose 60% of the time thats 60 trades/100 TOTAL trades.
60 * 1R/trade = 60R in loses over 60 trades/100 TOTAL trades.

So (68.8R in wins) - (60R in losses) = 8.8R total profit in 100 TOTAL Trades

Assuming a 2% risk per trade. Just for argument sake lets say this is a $100,000 account. Then risk is $2000/trade. He would make:
$2000 * 8.8R = $17,600 over 100 trades

So I was incorrect that it is NOT 1.76% but rather 17.6% in 100 TOTAL Trades. However, this is NOT the same as saying 1.76% per trade as that would mean 176% in 100 TOTAL trades.

BTW, thanks for the Sanders paper. It is very good so far. I still plan to finish reading Van Tharps & I am alraedy 1/2 way through. I have found it useful despite the questions it does not answer.
 
In addition,...look at Sanders book on P.7. he shows that Expectancy = (%Wins * R's won) - (%Losses * R's lost). In this case its (0.4 wins * 1.72R each win) - (0.6 losses * 1R lost) = (0.688R) - (0.6R) = 0.088R EXPECTANCY

This seems quite weak to me but I suppose if you risk $2000/trade you could make $176 on average per trade. Realize that 0.088R is just saying that for every $1 you risk you should make $0.088....just under 9 cents!!. So the more $$ you risk the more the return. If he only risked $1000 (1% capital at risk) he would only make $88 in 100 TOTAL trades.

I believe THAT is why his 5% risk is showing such high returns with this system.
$5000 * 0.088 = $440/trade. With 100 trades that is $44,000. The amount at risk here (5%) has increased substanially as has the "expected return" ($44,000). So he should make 44% ($44,000/$100,000) a year risking 5% per trade...(assuming only 100 trades/year). However, as you have pointed out his risk of RUIN is also very high with that amount at risk per trade.

What this shows is that LOWER Expectancy means you need to risk more to make decent returns but you also risk higher chance of ruin. That is basically what Sanders and Van Tharp are saying. YOU NEED TO MAXIMIZE EXPECTANCY TO MAXIMIZE PROFIT AND MAXIMIZE PROBABILITY OF WINS TO REDUCE DRAWDOWNS.

So, quick and dirty rule would be EXPECTANCY is related to PROFIT and PROBABILITY is related to DRAWDOWNS

I hope this helps.

eegozi
 
I'm not sure I agree with this. You are correct that I did my calculations incorrectly ...it should have been the following:

If you win 40% of the time thats 40 trades/100 TOTAL trades.
40 * 1.72R/trade = 68.8R in wins over 40 trades./100 TOTAL trades

If you lose 60% of the time thats 60 trades/100 TOTAL trades.
60 * 1R/trade = 60R in loses over 60 trades/100 TOTAL trades.

So (68.8R in wins) - (60R in losses) = 8.8R total profit in 100 TOTAL Trades

Assuming a 2% risk per trade. Just for argument sake lets say this is a $100,000 account. Then risk is $2000/trade. He would make:
$2000 * 8.8R = $17,600 over 100 trades

So I was incorrect that it is NOT 1.76% but rather 17.6% in 100 TOTAL Trades. However, this is NOT the same as saying 1.76% per trade as that would mean 176% in 100 TOTAL trades.

BTW, thanks for the Sanders paper. It is very good so far. I still plan to finish reading Van Tharps & I am alraedy 1/2 way through. I have found it useful despite the questions it does not answer.

eegozi,

Thank you for looking at this more closely, it's good for everyone to see this problem close and personal. I'd like to attack it with your last example of a $100,000 account. You state that R=$2000. Clearly, if the expectancy is .88R, then the return on each trade would be .88X2000=$1760 per trade. It's best to leave expectancy expressed this way, as a multiple of R, and to not confuse it with how many trades were taken, etc.

Another example, Let R=$1000 and Expectancy=.88R. Solve for Expectancy:

Expectancy=.88R=.88($1000)=$880.

This is the beauty of Expectancy in R-multiples, and I learned about this method from Van K. Tharp.

I made a mistake and didn't check the original math:

Originally Posted by eegozi
If you win 1.72R * 40 trades = 6.88R when you win. If you lose 1R * 60 = 6R when you lose. Therefore over 100 trades you should net 0.88R.

It should have been (1.72 * 40)=68.8R, 1 * 60=60R. 68.8-60=8.8R divided by 100 trades = .088R. The original R value was off by a factor of 10.

Kind Regards,

fastcar
 
One last thing,...it appears he has ~1800 trades so i would assume this is NOT 100 trades/year. He likely has 100 or even 200 trades/month. So, even a small expectancy of 0.088R/trade can yield good results with high frequency trading.

200 trades a month even if only risking 1% (ie, $1000 in assumed $100K acct) would yield the following:

$1000/trade * 0.088R expectancy = $88/trade.

200 trades per month * $88 = $17600/month

THAT is substantial!! 17.6% per month returns!!(y)
 
I made a mistake and didn't check the original math:



It should have been (1.72 * 40)=68.8R, 1 * 60=60R. 68.8-60=8.8R divided by 100 trades = .088R. The original R value was off by a factor of 10.

Kind Regards,

fastcar

Agreed,...his system has a 0.088R expectancy NOT 0.88R. Big difference. We were both incorrect at first.
 
Agreed,...his system has a 0.088R expectancy NOT 0.88R. Big difference. We were both incorrect at first.

I'm glad we finally agree on the math.

You are right about big returns on a 200 trade per month system, IF he can keep those stats up.

If the system continues to perform this way, I would use very low leverage, probably .75% and run it AS IS. The reason is, I'm not sure he will be able to boost the win rate in order to avail himself of more leverage. And, it's really not necessary. If he can make 10% or 15% per month, average, year in and year out, he has a wonderful thing going. If it ain't broke - why fix it?

I think the discussion of boosting his win rate is a product of Yuppie's original idea of using INSANE leverage on it. I'm still afraid he may not fully understand how dangerous this is with a system that has a win rate in the 40% range. At that level, he must understand that he could easily have a streak of 10 or 20 losers in a row. He needs to be prepared, and the best preparation would be to insure that it doesn't hurt him. USE LOW LEVERAGE. If he can hang in there, and trade this for the long haul, he will win big time. You've got to keep your eye on the goal: survival.

fastcar
 
I thought I would update you guys on what I have learned this weekend...

The system that Yuppie presents here I think has some serious flaws. I think he has been rather fortunate that he has not blown up his acct after 1800 trades.

For one this system has a probability that is worse than a 50:50 flip of the coin or throwing darts at the board to pic a trade (he says ~38-40% win rate). This would severely limit his ability to profit longterm because he is likely to have heavy drawdowns. Doing MC Sim on his data shows that he should have an average of 9 losers in a row (at 1R each) and MAX of about 20 losers in a row (so -20R) and only about 5 winners in a row with a MAX of 13 winners in a row. Since each winner makes only 0.088R that is only 1.144R (13 * 0.088R = 1.144R). So we have a loss of ~9R and win of 1.144R. This is horrible and has a high probability of ruin. The BEST case scenario gives a +94% return after 200 trades. Even more importantly this data is using ONLY 1% capital at risk. The original post said he was using 5% risk which would compound the problems. This is highly doubtful in my opinion that the Yuppie has not encountered this sort of drawdown scenario after 1800 trades. Also, as we all know a drawdown of this magnitude on a "discretionary system" means that anyone looking at such losses would invariably have their emotions effect their trading and subsequently make mistakes in trading. This MC Sim is only a best case scenario IF one trades the system exactly the same as in these 1800 trades.

So, in conclusion I think the data is very likely flawed and/or this system is a terrible system despite the high frequency of trades. Sorry Yuppie, but i think we need more detailed data of your trades to be able to help you with your system.

In order for a system with this poor expectancy (R multiple of 0.088R) to do well he needs to have very high probabilty of a win. In order for a system with a this poor probability to do well he needs to have a high expectancy. However, you cannot reasonably trade a system with both poor probability AND expectancy despite the high frequency of trades.

Good luck
 
I thought I would update you guys on what I have learned this weekend...

The system that Yuppie presents here I think has some serious flaws. I think he has been rather fortunate that he has not blown up his acct after 1800 trades.

Hi eegozi,

I wanted to make a few comments before you throw Yuppie's system under the bus! First, the fact that he has made that many trades, and it's up very handsomely means something is right. 1800 is a very large sample, and gives some credibility to his statistics (market conditions can change, and a system get better or worse - but that's another conversation). Let say the period contained all market types. If so, it looks like it works well.

Yuppie's original question was about MONEY MANAGEMENT. And it's a good question, especially when your win rate is below 50%.

For one this system has a probability that is worse than a 50:50 flip of the coin or throwing darts at the board to pic a trade (he says ~38-40% win rate). This would severely limit his ability to profit longterm because he is likely to have heavy drawdowns.

By heavy, what do you mean? 30%, 70%? eegozi, the drawdown is a function of POSITION SIZING, and related only indirectly to win rate.

Doing MC Sim on his data shows that he should have an average of 9 losers in a row (at 1R each) and MAX of about 20 losers in a row (so -20R) and only about 5 winners in a row with a MAX of 13 winners in a row.

This is really useful information to Yuppie, and the kind that he can get from doing MC simulations. But it's how it's used that is important... This kind of information prepares the trader mentally for what might come. It's not used to calculate drawdown, because you must consider losses before and after a large streak.

Since each winner makes only 0.088R that is only 1.144R (13 * 0.088R = 1.144R). So we have a loss of ~9R and win of 1.144R. This is horrible and has a high probability of ruin.

No, no, no, no, no, no, NO! eegozi, the winners do not average .088R, that is the average PER TRADE! That includes winners and losers... His average winner is 1.72R. Expectancy is suppose to make things EASIER, not harder. Honestly, each time you do a calculation, you make the math needlessly complex. Just multiply the number of trades times the Expectancy. That's how many 'R' you can expect after that many trades. Then, if you want a rate of return, multiply that times the position size.


The BEST case scenario gives a +94% return after 200 trades. Even more importantly this data is using ONLY 1% capital at risk. The original post said he was using 5% risk which would compound the problems.

The average return, and the worst return are the ones he should probably give the most weight to. And yes, based on the results I listed in a previous post, a 5% position size had a very good chance of blowing out his account.

This is highly doubtful in my opinion that the Yuppie has not encountered this sort of drawdown scenario after 1800 trades.

If you look at his chart, he does have some pretty significant drawdown there...

Also, as we all know a drawdown of this magnitude on a "discretionary system" means that anyone looking at such losses would invariably have their emotions effect their trading and subsequently make mistakes in trading.

Well, that's true. But, according to my earlier calculations, Yuppie could run his system very profitably with a 1% bet size, and contain his risk of drawdown to a 5% chance of a 33% drawdown in 500 trades. Based on 1800 trades in 20 months, he has an average of 90 trades per month. If he would like to look at this problem from an annual perspective, that's 1080 trades per year, average. The simulator I use shows a 2% chance of a 25% drawdown over 1080 trades with a 1/2% (0.5) bet size. Personally, this would be my objective with respect to risk.

Now, what about returns? At the current level of trading, with the exact same trades he took before, he would 'expect' (1080 * .088R) or about 95R. Multiply this by a 1/2% bet size, and he could look for returns of about 47% per year. THIS DOES NOT EVEN INCLUDE COMPOUNDING.

This MC Sim is only a best case scenario IF one trades the system exactly the same as in these 1800 trades.

So, in conclusion I think the data is very likely flawed and/or this system is a terrible system despite the high frequency of trades. Sorry Yuppie, but i think we need more detailed data of your trades to be able to help you with your system.

In order for a system with this poor expectancy (R multiple of 0.088R) to do well he needs to have very high probabilty of a win. In order for a system with a this poor probability to do well he needs to have a high expectancy. However, you cannot reasonably trade a system with both poor probability AND expectancy despite the high frequency of trades.

Good luck

eegozi, I really don't see any reason to question his data - it is what it is. It's just one possible outcome from his system.

The concepts you mention are all important, for example winning percentage and expectancy. But it's important that they not be jumbled together. Expectancy already factors in the winning percentage (what you call probability above). When you say a system with a low expectancy and probability you are counting it twice.

I think what you are trying to say, basically, is that you don't feel his edge is enough. However, if his data is accurate I'm not sure I agree. If he can create similar results going forward (I'm still not clear if this is all back testing, or live trading) his potential results would put him up there with the best hedge fund managers.

fastcar
 
Fastcar,

I will concede that I have mistakenly quoted his expectancy as a winning R. I should have used 1.72R. The point I am making is that I think he is on the "lucky" end of the MC Sim that is showing a best case scenario. I ran his data through multiple MC Sim and there is a HUGE probability that he will blow up his acct even at 1%....much worse wih 5%.

I am not trying to make the calculations difficult. I was simply trying to show how I came up with my conclusions and thats why I provided the level of detail. Discussing it can get confusing as we have seen with confusion from both of us when dealing with these terms (and I suspect we're both used to speaking in these terms). However, I am still learning but I still do not see how over the long term this acct will not blow up in most everybodies hands. I strongly disagree with you about the "best hedge fund managers" comment. I dont think most hedge fund managers would even contemplate this type of system as it has too much room for error and loss.

In all other points about this system WE AGREE. The 95R you obtained in your calc. were similar to mine at 94R (using 1% risk is how i came up with 94% return.) However, despite the position size you suggest of 0.5% I still think he has a higher chance than most at losing in the long term because of the high likelihood of long strings of losers.

I also suspect that these were not real trades,...but I could be wrong. I suspect these were backtests. Maybe Yuppie can chime in here to clarify.

As for expectancy and probability "counting twice" I disagree as well. A system can have high expectancy and low probability. Such a system would need to have some trades that make 5R or more to raise the expectancy sufficient to trade the system. With a low probability at winning you are waiting for those BIG WINS of 5R+ to make up for the large number of 1R losers. That was the point I made about a truly vaild system. It is unlikely that a meaningful system would have low expectancy AND probability as this system could only make money if traded mechanically and NOT as a discretionary system. By your reasoning you should trade a 0.00001R system if you traded 200,000 trades a month for a monthly return of 2R.

So, with those exceptions I still stand that this data is flawed. It is probably curve fit back test info is what I am guessing. I could be wrong and would appreciate clarity from Yuppie.
 
Hi guys,

Thanks for the input. I will come back with some more detailed comments shortly.
The trades are real, Spreadbets since the start of 2011, so the commission (Spread) is already included. I mainly trade intraday about 10 trades / day. Strategy is purely discretionary, trend-following and mean-reversal with usually tight stops.
I scale positions, f.ex. if a mean-reversal starts to happen, I enter 1/3rd and then add into the reversal the additional size and adjusting the stops.
In drawdowns I usually lower the position size, on runs I up the size. As the account is still relatively small, I currently feel fine with the leverage. In case equity grows sufficiently, I will be inclined to lower leverage.

Cheers,
Yuppie
 
Hi,

@eegozi: would you be able to send me the file you use for MC Sim by PM / email or post it on Sribd ? This would really help me as my file currently seems not only too simple but also misleading.

I will get a copy of Supertrader, it sounds very useful.

Cheers and thanks,

Yuppie
 
Yuppie,

Why not try to calculate your SQN for your system? It equals (Expectancy/Standard Deviation of R) * 10.

In the case of more than 100 trades, Van Tharp uses 10, instead of the Square Root of the number of trades.

Expectancy must be listed as an 'R multiple', which I believe is .088 for your system. So, you may just need to calculate the Standard Deviation of your R multiples. Your 'R multiples' are the 1800 results you have, expressed in 'R'. 'R' is risk on each trade. If the risk was the same on all 1800 trades, this should be very easy for you to calculate.

If your SQN is above 2, then you have a good system.

You may want to try and derive two answers, one including brokerage, and one on your gross returns and risk. It would be interesting to see how much the number changes after factoring in brokerage.

Kind Regards,

fastcar
 
Yuppie,

Why not try to calculate your SQN for your system? It equals (Expectancy/Standard Deviation of R) * 10.

In the case of more than 100 trades, Van Tharp uses 10, instead of the Square Root of the number of trades.

Expectancy must be listed as an 'R multiple', which I believe is .088 for your system. So, you may just need to calculate the Standard Deviation of your R multiples. Your 'R multiples' are the 1800 results you have, expressed in 'R'. 'R' is risk on each trade. If the risk was the same on all 1800 trades, this should be very easy for you to calculate.

If your SQN is above 2, then you have a good system.



You may want to try and derive two answers, one including brokerage, and one on your gross returns and risk. It would be interesting to see how much the number changes after factoring in brokerage.

Kind Regards,

fastcar

I agree with fastcar. Calculating SQN would be helpful. This STD can be derived easily by putting your R multiples into an Excel spread sheet column and then doing standard deviation calculation of the column of R multiples.

BTW,.. fastcar if you solve for STD assuming SQN of at least 1.7 (as this is what Van Tharp considers statistcally significant) then you must have a STD of 0.5 or less (ie {0.088 R /0.5 STD} * 10 = 1.7). This was a large part of why I say the data is flawed. Over 1800 trades it is unlikely to have such tight groupings of R multiple distributions to generate such a low STD.

Yuppie,..I used the MC Sim file posted earlier. MonteCarloAnalysis.xls - File Shared from Box.net - Free Online File Storage.

I have attached the file with some mild modifiactions.
 

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...if you solve for STD assuming SQN of at least 1.7 (as this is what Van Tharp considers statistcally significant) then you must have a STD of 0.5 or less (ie {0.088 R /0.5 STD} * 10 = 1.7).

Nice work, eegozi.

fastcar
 
BTW,

I don't think Van Tharp discusses it, but I can't imagine that he is interested in Expectancy WITHOUT brokerage. What good would that be? It's a FANTASY number, that is unobtainable, and probably has NO MEANING for most traders. This is especially true of high frequency scalping systems. You could have a system that trades for a few ticks that has very good GROSS NUMBERS. Add the brokerage in, and your EDGE COULD DISAPPEAR.

Consider the difference between the 'R multiple' generated by a theoretical system that trades (2) contracts, risks 6 ticks (R) and has an Expectancy (E) of 2 ticks, first with no fees/commissions, then with fees/commissions of $4.40/turn:

'Fantasy'
R=$150
E=$50
'R multiple' = .333R

Real World
R=$158.80
E=$28.70
'R multiple' = .181R

Notice that commissions cut Expectancy expressed in terms of risk by nearly 50%! Imagine what this would do to the system's SQN number...

I suppose looking at the no fees/commission numbers could be useful to someone who has a seat at the exchange, and can actually trade a method like this. But it ain't me, so I have no use for these kinds of statistics.

fastcar
 
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Was just gonna say that the sheet doens't seem to be accounting for comms.
Could increasing ave loss and reducing ave profit by commissions effect solve the problem?
 
I wasn't aware of that, since I haven't looked at that spreadsheet for some time... But, someone with excel skills could fix it...

fastcar
 
Suppose you could change the chart to account for commission but I think it will just shift.

All of the points you guys discuss are the ones I was eluding to earlier in the thread. You can't have such low expectancy and trade this profitably if you also have low porbability. Add commisions, poor trading (ie,... not following rules of system), and emotions in to the "discretionary" system and you have negaitve expectancy.

Also he says he has a small acct. I dont know how small but i know from personal experience that especially with high freq. trading that commisions eat into profits faster than a larger acct because you are effectively taking more % out of your capital with each trade. So you need a capital structure of at least $100,000 by my estimation and probably $1,000,000 to trade this system even close to effectively. I doubt that is the case here as well.

I ran some crude estimations as well on commissions. If comm is round trip $10 and this system only has $25,000 size, then he will only make $12 per trade at best assuming 1% risk. $250 * 0.088 = $22 - $10 RT commisions = $12. Effectively cutting the expectancy in half as you described. Now look at $100,000....$1000 * 0.088 = $88 - 10 = $78. He said it is a small acct so I doubt he has this much.

When I calculate R multiple on my system I do it NOT including commisions and again including commisions. They are different but then again I would never trade such a low expectancy system described here. So again, I take the other side that there is no way this is competing with best "hedge fund managers"...sorry,...dont see it.

Either this is a terrible system (in my opinion) or this data is flawed,...OR BOTH.


Yuppie should give more details of his data so we can help.
 
I think the trades/sample size needs to be increased and there needs to be longer and more frequent losing streaks programmed into the random generation. Also, I think I'd rather see the results as a normal/prob distribution curve rather than a line chart. Been trying to do it myself but my VBA isn't good enough :confused:
 
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