meanreversion
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Why do options have to overpriced for the spread to offer a yield of 5% for 60 days. Connect the dots for me.
Because, to this point, you've not experienced life around a short strike. The markets have been calmly drifting higher, which is a perfect scenario for you.
The Black Scholes formula incorporates the "risk free" interest rate for the relevant period, and this rate is used to discount the premium of the option (it's paid up front). If you price up a 100 year option, you'll see it's incredibly cheap, but it's because of discounting.
Anyhow, this "risk free rate" is certainly not 5% for 60 days.
Thus, in order to earn this (which is what you have done so far), you have to be selling something else. Because if you weren't, it would violate the principle that options are (more or less) fairly valued, which you claim to accept. Even if they're a little bit overpriced, it does not equate to an annualized rate of return of 30%.
So, what are you selling?