Profitaker
Established member
- Messages
- 773
- Likes
- 70
“Prof,
NO confusion my end!”
Good, Can we assume that you now understand the difference between Option Delta and Position Delta ?
“Writng DOTM ONE LEG PUT [Eu style ftse index] Options wiv 1-3 mths to expiry gives you the edge over the BUYER!! And 80 % chance the position WILL xpire WORTHLESS!!! and the writer gets to KEEP ALL THE PREMIUMS! “
Edge is not determined by how far OTM or how far out in time you trade. Edge (or advantage) is determined by the Implied Volatility that you Sell (or buy) Verses the future volatility in the underlying asset. BUT future volatility cannot be known in advance, only after the options expire, when it then becomes Historic Volatility (HV). Only when HV is known can you state categorically who had the edge. IV/HV determines the edge, nothing else is a factor. But It becomes much more complicated when you look at the underlying asset distribution which may not actually be a perfect normal distribution. For example, it may exhibit “fat tail” (positive Kurtosis) which is why DOTM equity and index options trade at a higher IV than ATM.
Is there anything else you’d like explaining before I send you my invoice ?
NO confusion my end!”
Good, Can we assume that you now understand the difference between Option Delta and Position Delta ?
“Writng DOTM ONE LEG PUT [Eu style ftse index] Options wiv 1-3 mths to expiry gives you the edge over the BUYER!! And 80 % chance the position WILL xpire WORTHLESS!!! and the writer gets to KEEP ALL THE PREMIUMS! “
Edge is not determined by how far OTM or how far out in time you trade. Edge (or advantage) is determined by the Implied Volatility that you Sell (or buy) Verses the future volatility in the underlying asset. BUT future volatility cannot be known in advance, only after the options expire, when it then becomes Historic Volatility (HV). Only when HV is known can you state categorically who had the edge. IV/HV determines the edge, nothing else is a factor. But It becomes much more complicated when you look at the underlying asset distribution which may not actually be a perfect normal distribution. For example, it may exhibit “fat tail” (positive Kurtosis) which is why DOTM equity and index options trade at a higher IV than ATM.
Is there anything else you’d like explaining before I send you my invoice ?