stevespray
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But none of this changes the fact that the firms form contracts with the clients in terms of the individual bets. In the case being discussed in this particular thread it has been stated (by the client) that the bet was opened and then closed before there was even a hint that the firm was unhappy with the way that it was quoting its market. It's my understanding that this is what is stated in the very first posts of this thread?
On that basis what is your arguement? That hundreds of years of contract law would be overturned if the firm admit that the 'accidently' didnt follow a MiFID directive? When is a bet not a bet? What happeneds when a client of a firm loses money due to a firms failure to observe a particular MiFID directive?
Dispite what a section of IG Index's T&Cs clearly states (that they can vary their quote from that of the underlying), you are saying that IG Index cannot do this as it in some way breaks MiFID? I'm not sure I agree with you. Surely anyone (a firm or otherwise) can price their products (index) how they like? I'm guessing that sometimes the firms might want to take other factors into consideration when pricing a market? Like current order flow, present market direction, volatility and the size and shape of the firms own order book in that particular market.
What you appear to be suggesting is a pretty strange situation; you seem to imply that the firm could defend itself by suggesting that terms or conditions in its own Customer Agreement are not valid? In this particular case you are saying that the part I quoted from Section 5 of IG's Customer Agreement is not actually correct (as you feel it doesn't follow MiFID) and that any firm can legitimately use that as a reason for cancelling it's legally binding bets?
Your arguement is a somewhat confusing one. Are the clients expected to pick through the various Customer Agreements to find terms or conditions which are invalidated by MiFID or do the firms have an obligation to present T&Cs which are constructed in such a manner that MiFID rules are met?
Certainly an interesting topic.
Steve.
On that basis what is your arguement? That hundreds of years of contract law would be overturned if the firm admit that the 'accidently' didnt follow a MiFID directive? When is a bet not a bet? What happeneds when a client of a firm loses money due to a firms failure to observe a particular MiFID directive?
Dispite what a section of IG Index's T&Cs clearly states (that they can vary their quote from that of the underlying), you are saying that IG Index cannot do this as it in some way breaks MiFID? I'm not sure I agree with you. Surely anyone (a firm or otherwise) can price their products (index) how they like? I'm guessing that sometimes the firms might want to take other factors into consideration when pricing a market? Like current order flow, present market direction, volatility and the size and shape of the firms own order book in that particular market.
What you appear to be suggesting is a pretty strange situation; you seem to imply that the firm could defend itself by suggesting that terms or conditions in its own Customer Agreement are not valid? In this particular case you are saying that the part I quoted from Section 5 of IG's Customer Agreement is not actually correct (as you feel it doesn't follow MiFID) and that any firm can legitimately use that as a reason for cancelling it's legally binding bets?
Your arguement is a somewhat confusing one. Are the clients expected to pick through the various Customer Agreements to find terms or conditions which are invalidated by MiFID or do the firms have an obligation to present T&Cs which are constructed in such a manner that MiFID rules are met?
Certainly an interesting topic.
Steve.
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