What is money? Where does our money come from?

I dunno, Ducati. That sounds like a very American view of the world.

There is no denying the power of the free market; that is one of the reasons why the US has been a superpower for as long as it has. I am also an advocate of efficient government that keeps its paws out of matters it doesn't understand.

But at the same time, you need an impartial third party to oversee regulations, provide basic infrastructure, as well as promote public education and health. Another benefit of government is its centrality. It can coordinate projects and make decisions on a bigger scale than individual city states as you say. It keeps people united. There are many societies that believe this as well, which is why the idea of government persists. I also think culture comes into it as well.

This cannot be an entirely economic decision, but I think that's a discussion for another time.
 
And just who has facilitated that if not government?

The natural law and property rights is the facilitator of capitalism.

Government, far from facilitating capitalism has sought to live off of capitalism like any other parasite.

jog on
duc
 
And just who has facilitated that if not government?

Instead of just throwing in random one liners Jon why don't you explain how it is facilitated by Government through fiat money, and how it would be crippled by a gold specie standard?

Who would suffer under a gold specie standard? It certainly would NOT be the productive members of society, or the entrepreneurs, or the savers and investors. The only people who would suffer are the ones living off the Government printing press at the expense of others. The ones riding in the wagon instead of the ones pulling the wagon.
 



vg




I dunno, Ducati. That sounds like a very American view of the world.

Not really American, liberal, true original liberalism of the 18'th century, or as it is called now libertarianism.






There is no denying the power of the free market; that is one of the reasons why the US has been a superpower for as long as it has. I am also an advocate of efficient government that keeps its paws out of matters it doesn't understand.

Then essentially, we are in agreement.

But at the same time, you need an impartial third party to oversee regulations, provide basic infrastructure,as well as promote public education and health

Which should be the purpose of a free market money, that impartially allocates the factors of production, and a truly independent legal system based upon natural law, on a competitive, or free market basis.




Another benefit of government is its centrality. It can coordinate projects and make decisions on a bigger scale than individual city states as you say. It keeps people united. There are many societies that believe this as well, which is why the idea of government persists. I also think culture comes into it as well.

I would argue that it persists, only at the point of a gun.

It is the division of labour that promotes 'society' and mutual co-operation and peace.


This cannot be an entirely economic decision, but I think that's a discussion for another time.


It's not, it's also a moral argument, which is Ethical in it's theory and discussion. Indeed, and the discussions are already touching upon this area.

jog on
duc
 
mg


Well, tbh, I was hoping that you would have a go at trying to come up with these independently, but that's OK.

Come now old chap, you are arguing the position or side of fiat, it is thus incumbent upon you to provide your best argument.



The costs I was referring to have to do with the loss of competitive advantage that arises when you don't have a domestic agency that controls your money supply.

What you are really referring to are tariffs/subsidies, and 'protectionism' as policy. Ricardo exposed the fallacies of protectionism via the theory of comparative advantage hundreds of years ago.



Moreover, that loss, in extreme cases, can lead to all sorts of severe short-term and long-term repercussions.

Which are?





My point here is simple and is just based on the obvious observation that you can't get something for nothing.


You have made a very 'general' statement, that is factually incorrect. In addition, as nt highlighted, you have also caught yourself in a logical contradiction.

jog on
duc
 
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Instead of just throwing in random one liners Jon why don't you explain how it is facilitated by Government through fiat money, and how it would be crippled by a gold specie standard?

.

I haven't suggested it would be crippled by gold standard, nor that it is fiat money that facilitates.

All I was doing was refuting the suggestion that governments' objective (by the use of fiat money) is to dun its citizens and rob them of what is rightfully theirs. On the contrary, I believe that all governments seek to facilitate the economic well-being of their citizens, albeit that some governments only go as far as necessary to protect their own elite and to avoid being overthrown by revolution.

It may be right that it is capitalism that is the driver and deliverer of economic growth, but it is governments that have facilitated that capitalism balanced by protecting its citizens from its (capitalism's) worst excesses.
 
I haven't suggested it would be crippled by gold standard, nor that it is fiat money that facilitates.

All I was doing was refuting the suggestion that governments' objective (by the use of fiat money) is to dun its citizens and rob them of what is rightfully theirs. On the contrary, I believe that all governments seek to facilitate the economic well-being of their citizens, albeit that some governments only go as far as necessary to protect their own elite and to avoid being overthrown by revolution.

It may be right that it is capitalism that is the driver and deliverer of economic growth, but it is governments that have facilitated that capitalism balanced by protecting its citizens from its (capitalism's) worst excesses.

Really?


Democracy is an abomination. Let’s examine ‘democracy’ as a monopoly, which it actually is:

Monopoly as an analytic a priori proposition: monopoly is an entity [institution] that exists in the absence of any market competition.

Defining ‘monopoly’ as an institution that can as a producer of goods and services [within its market], raise revenues through the restriction of supply: this is and must be due to an inelastic demand curve.

To gain a monopoly position, all competition must be eliminated. Free market mechanisms cannot succeed, nor be utilised to eliminate competition, as free market mechanisms rely upon ‘out competing’ the competition through ‘lower price, higher quality’ or a combination of the two. With ‘free entry’ to the ‘market’ as ‘profit margins rise’ due to an expansion of market share, or product dominance, competitors are attracted to the high returns available, particularly if the demand curve has areas of inelasticity.

Legal mechanisms can be utilised, as they rely upon an outside agency to provide the coercive power required to exclude all and any competition. Thus the only true monopolies are monopolies that exist under conditions of coercion. These monopolies will only possess monopoly power or advantage in an area where they have the support of the coercive power.

The ‘other’ way that monopoly area of influence, or market share can be gained is through the direct use of coercion, or physical force [or the threat of] against any and all competition. Assuming success, the institution then controls the market or territory that they can defend from other potential or actual monopolists.

We now have an area that supports say 100 monopolists, each with a territory that has an inelastic demand curve for our institutions goods and services, which happen to be quite similar in our 100 firms. As ‘competition’ is prohibited, legal power resides with each individual monopolist, the only method to remaining to drive expansion of territorial control and hence an expansion in revenues is through ‘war’.

Of course this is exactly the situation of the ‘State’ which historically consisted of ‘Kings’ and now are ‘governments’. There are some very important differences between the two forms of the ‘State’ however, as far as ‘government’ expansion is concerned, there are only two ways that they can expand their market share, direct war, or the threat of war, resulting in Imperialism.

Through history the theory of monopoly can be seen to drive the ever shrinking number of ‘States’ into ever larger territorial areas that are exploited by monopoly government. There have been stunning reversals, the Soviet Empire imploded of course, but the historical dialectic has been towards consolidation through war and aggression. The inelastic demand curve is inelastic as of course it is 100% coerced. The revenues generated are called ‘tax’.

Monopoly through coercion has a logical conclusion: one world government. Steps have of course been underway for a long time towards this ‘ideal’ using the fiat currency as the primary weapon. Bretton Woods saw the hegemony of the US. drive the implementation of the US dollar as the ‘world reserve’ currency, much as prior to WWI Britain held the unofficial world reserve currency.

jog on
duc
 
mg

Well, this would have been true, if it weren't for some unfortunate deficiencies of capitalism. Yes, taxation creates distortions etc and that is also a well-known and well-studied subject in economics. However, taxation deadweight loss shouldn't be viewed on its own, but rather combined with the deadweight loss that results from negative externalities/public good problems. Once you have done that, you have to conclude that some level of taxation is optimal.


This again can easily be refuted. I note that even the parable of the ant and grasshopper underlies the economic truth that it is ‘saving’ that creates security. So now let’s move forward and present the correct position in his three areas of contention.

First and foremost it must be stressed that in economics and other social sciences, it is not the ‘inductive method’ that has primacy, rather it is the ‘deductive method’ for the reason that in human affairs all causation is already known: viz. it is ourselves. Thus knowing the causation, we simply need to start from an axiom and deductively progress forward, resulting in truth statements. The theory is thus irrefutable. No amount of empirical evidence can gainsay true theory.

I start with production. For any production, the best method will be chosen. This will include the most up-to-date technology available. In addition the factors of production will be applied and mixed in the optimal fashion: land, labour and capital. The goal will be to produce the most ‘output’ at the minimum ‘input’. The last factor not mentioned in the ‘triad’ is time. The timeframe chosen will be the ‘shortest’ possible timeframe. This underlines the law that ‘present value’ is higher than ‘future value’.

From this we can state that any improvement in the ‘output’ must require a change in the inputs: land, labour, capital and time. Technology is usually quoted as being the most important factor. Technology is important, however it is not the critical factor, which can be illustrated by way of an example: Africa could have access to the technology of the ‘West’ but, without capital, no progress in production can or will take place. It is capital that creates the ability to produce.

As already stated, the ‘shortest’ time period will have been chosen, the most efficient productive process. Thus to increase ‘output’ even adding or subtracting other ‘input’ factors, there must be an increase in the time required to produce. Thus increased output requires additional time, or a longer waiting period for an increased ‘output’ to be produced.

Therefore our increased output results in an aggregate falling time preference amongst consumers. Thus the ‘originary rate of interest’ must fall, signaling the falling time preferences of consumers, who make available increased quantities of capital goods to be transformed into the higher ‘output’ of the longer production period.

Which brings us to the crux of the fallacy that government spending can promote, and is de facto responsible for increased ‘output’. Government spending needs to be defined. How do we separate government spending into ‘consumption spending’ and ‘investment spending’? Simply through an examination of the ‘revenues’ accruing to government. Investment spending will result in ‘investment income’ and consumption spending shortfalls will need to be financed through taxation. Therefore we can examine the empirical data to establish the type of income that government has generated.

Essentially then all government spending is serviced via taxation. Direct taxation via ‘income tax’ or indirect taxation via debt, which implies higher future taxes, or ‘inflation’ viz. money creation to devalue the debt burden. Thus we shall examine the theory of taxation with regard to the professors assertion that government spending via taxation, is the creator of increased production, which is the requirement to create wealth.

Through taxation government has increasingly destroyed the fundamental base upon which capitalism builds wealth. Taxation is as this post proves, illegal. In addition to being illegal, taxation also possesses these rather unfortunate traits: increase unemployment [ii] reduce productivity. Both these together result in decreased [wealth] production.

It is not the ‘type’ of taxation that is important, rather it is the ‘total’ taxation burden that is critical. Taxation takes numerous different forms: income tax [ii] inflation [iii] consumption tax [iv] subsidies [v] tariffs [vi] capital gains tax [vii] patents [viii] copyright [ix] minimum wages and [x] debt

Taxation is a ‘cost’ to the producer that is paid to government as tax revenue. This payment must be made in ‘present value’. By reducing the sum total of present value capital goods, the ability to engage in the allocation of present value capital goods to future value capital goods is reduced. Thus production through the raising of ‘time preferences’ will be reduced in the future, thus reducing supply, thus raising prices in consumer goods and services.

Through a reduction in future production, the employment that would have been created, now is not. If taxes are raised, then productive capital that ‘was’ profitable can be made ‘unprofitable’ and thereby creating unemployment. As I survey the data, the theoretical a priori of taxation becomes starkly apparent.

This is the contradiction. Taxation increases the consumption in ‘present value’ and thus by definition raises time preferences higher. To increase production, the opposite must occur: viz. time preferences must be lowered. QED.

jog on
duc
 
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I haven't actually finished responding to your previous posts. You're well ahead of me, but I will press on.
You don't actually state what this competitive advantage actually is, but I am guessing that you are referring to the competitiveness of exports. Through a devaluation of the money supply, which by lowering the real price paid, makes relative to other manufacturers, the goods/services of the devalued money 'cheaper', thus increasing demand. This is of course the current situation that we find ourselves in today.
...

The purpose of fiat money expansion via inflation, is to prevent an adjustment in prices. This is of course one of the dual mandates of the Federal Reserve and other Central Banks.

The only way to lower real prices, without actually lowering 'nominal prices', is to create an inflation. This inflation however confounds accurate economic calculation, which leads, over time to a net capital consumption. This is a huge economic cost, one which gold money prevents.
Firstly, I have stated that the competitive advantage isn't specifically something related to exports. The ability of the domestic agency to control money supply is the advantage. I am not really sure why you have launched into the discussion of how you perceive trade operates. I don't see the relevance of this. As far as I am concerned all you're doing is stating your conclusion as if it's a fact, which isn't particularly convincing. Moreover, apart from the other stuff, I find myself puzzled by the last passage. How is it possible to lower real prices without lowering nominal prices by creating inflation? That is a rather absurd notion, but maybe you have discovered a new economic paradigm.
As just demonstrated, this is a fallacy. Gold money prevents capital consumption. In point of fact, it drives capital creation. Fiat money is an abomination. It's sole function, is to expand the ability of the State to expropriate property from legal owners.
You haven't actually demonstrated anything. You have stated that gold is better, according to some specific metric that you prefer. Again, you simply state that gold is good, fiat money is bad. That is not convincing.
 
You don't actually define your term here, but I am guessing [always dangerous] that you are referring to this:

The Industrial Policy plan of a country, sometimes shortened IP, is its official strategic effort to encourage the development and growth of the manufacturing sector of the economy.[1][2] A country's infrastructure (transportation, telecommunications and energy industry) is a major part of the manufacturing sector that usually has a key role in the IP. The IP purports to "stimulate specific activities and promote structural change".[3]

Industrial policies are sector specific, unlike broader macroeconomic policies. They are sometimes labeled as interventionist as opposed to laissez-faire economics. Examples of horizontal, economywide policies are tightening credit or taxing capital gain, while examples of vertical, sector-specific policies comprise protecting textiles from foreign imports or subsidizing export industries. Free market advocates consider industrial policies as interventionist measures typical of mixed economy countries.


Essentially then your argument is that a central agency, in this case the State, represented by it's government, allocates investment to specific areas and projects: the very essence of central planning and Socialism, whereby you have the abolition of private ownership of the means of production, land, labour & capital, and the creation of a system of 'planned economy' in which the entrepreneur working for profit is replaced by a central planning body.

The problem with Socialism in a practical sense, ignoring any ideological objections is that when you remove ownership of the means of production from individuals, and arrogate to the State the ownership, the State cannot calculate economically. When the State owns all, there are no longer any money prices, and without the categories of profit and loss, no economic calculation can take place.

The State can only calculate if it has access to free market prices in free unencumbered markets. The Soviet Union had access to free market prices based on the West's [relatively] free markets to function.

Socialism now, rather than nationalising industries, viz. removing the ownership from private individuals, can implement the same level of control through the ownership of the money monopoly. When you can create unlimited money, can create legislation that allows/forbids certain actions, you essentially control the economy, which is your argument.

The exact same problems still exists: the problem of economic calculation. Through the unrestricted creation of new money and credit, the price system is distorted, creating an inability in extreme cases, and increasing inaccuracy in lesser cases, of the free market, via prices calculated in money terms, to calculate economically via profit and loss accounting.
You're roughly correct in terms of what I was referring to as industrial policy. However, yet again, you're arguing the exact same point that we have discussed repeatedly. Specifically, I agree that industrial policy can be abused and the extreme cases of these abuses are well-known (I guess that is why you have brought up Socialism). However, my point is different. I am saying simply that industrial policy is a tool that can be used by governments and some have been successful at it ("infant industry" policies, even though you may disagree with them, are effective). If your government gives up this capability in a competitive setting, it is sacrificing a viable tool, which may or may not come in handy, for the sake of principle. I don't think this is a good idea.
What examples?
Well, the most obvious one is China. The less obvious one is Switzerland. The less contemporary examples can be found throughout history.
Modern societies made the choice?

Nonsense. The transition from gold money to fiat money was made at the point of a gun.
Well, apart from your assertion that this is "nonsense" and your general conviction that the government and everything it does is fundamentally evil, what possible evidence is there of this?
 
Capitalism is defined as: the private, legal [under tenets of natural law] ownership of the factors of production, utilising the division of labour, producing under comparative advantage, with free markets available to all, using a free market money to facilitate indirect exchange.
Thank you.
Let me address this commonly asserted fallacy, or group of fallacies:

Perfect Knowledge:
For example the purchase of a second hand car. Where the seller of the car has far more historical information than the potential purchaser. This is of course the purpose of prices and discounting the future to present values. If I suffer from an ‘asymmetry of information’ the present value I assign will be far lower, not knowing the future. So this objection is incorrect.

Information asymmetries do relate to insurance. The rather lacking in detail of the statement rather distorts the accuracy of the statement. Information asymmetries can be important, or, they can be far less so. One form would preclude insurance, the other would not.

Class probability means, that we know nothing about an individual outcome, but we know everything about a whole class of events, and are certain about the future. In a lottery, for example, we know how many tickets are in total and how many will be drawn. But that does not say at all, if a particular ticket or tickets will win, and buying more tickets does not increase the chance of winning. An instance of class probability is called risk. It is possible to insure against risk, because the behavior of a class of events (or a reasonable subset of it) is well known.

Case probability means, that we know some of the factors which determine the outcome of a particular event; but there are other determining factors which we don’t know. The cases are individual, unique, and nonrepeatable, their result is uncertain. If in roulette a ball falls ten times on red in succession, the probability, that in the next turn will be the result black, is not greater than it was before. Football games cannot be predicted on the results of last games, nor can be presidential elections.
I have absolutely no idea what this has to do with anything that I have actually asked about. Why so many words when all I asked you for is some support for the categorical statement you have made? Empirical evidence or stuff of that sort, rather than words.
Externalities:
Negative externalities, or the ‘tragedy of the commons’ is a failure not of ‘capitalism’, rather it is a failure of ‘property rights’. Property rights can only be enforced through the ‘law’ which has been monopolised by the ‘State’. The tragedy of the commons is therefore a failure of ‘government’. The apologists for socialism always promulgate this lie.
Firstly, no, the issues of externalities aren't necessarily related to property rights. Furthermore, even if we were talking about porperty rights only, I don't really understand this argument at all. Do you propose that the State give up its monopoly on "law"? If so, are you suggesting that the newly-minted, gloriously capitalist entity which will pick up the responsibility is not going to face the very same issue? Why? Finally, I really don't get where this whole "apologists for socialism" is coming from.
Free Entry:
Free markets promote free entry and competition. This limits the size of dominant firms and their market power. Without government, areas would return to much smaller areas that are governed through the free market with regards to law and law enforcement, city states. City states would, even if they required a military, would have a much smaller and less powerful military, which would limit military actions. Even should military actions take place, the involvement and duration must be lesser.
Oh, I am sooooo confused now. Are you suggesting that free markets will limit the size of firms and that will stop wars, because people will be confined to smaller social units? Am I to understand that you're proposing that free entry and competition will allow us to, effectively, go back to the good old days of the Ancient Greeks or Medieval Europe?
Market Failures:
Most of which are already covered in a your previous objections. Really all that is left is ‘monopoly’ possibly principal/agent problem. So before addressing ‘monopoly’ let me quickly dispense with the principal/agent problem: This is best dealt with via clear and enforceable property rights. This is not a free market failure, this is a failure in legal titles. As already stated, the way forward is through enforceable property rights.
I am really not aware of ever talking about mkt failures and the other issues you mention. My only question here is who will be granting and enforcing property rights in this setup that you describe? Clearly, you're not really happy with giving this responsibility to government.
Public goods deal with ‘positive externalities’ that would not be provided due to the ‘free rider’ problem. National defence is always put forward as the ultimate ‘free rider’ problem. Government as a monopoly can only ‘grow’ larger and more powerful through acquiring more territory and population to exploit through theft of property. Capitalism promotes competition, the very anti-thesis of monopoly. Government is the prime institution that promotes aggression and war, which is clearly highlighted throughout history. The larger ‘governments’ have become, the larger and more destructive the wars or potential wars have become.

Thus government promote this idea that they protect us. Nothing really could be further from the truth. It is not us that they seek to protect, rather it is their area and population monopoly that they seek to protect from other governments that are seeking to eliminate ‘market competition’ in monopoly coercion.

Free markets promote free entry and competition. This limits the size of dominant firms and their market power. Without government, areas would return to much smaller areas that are governed through the free market with regards to law and law enforcement, city states. City states would, even if they required a military, would have a much smaller and less powerful military, which would limit military actions. Even should military actions take place, the involvement and duration must be lesser.

Thus the whole myth of government providing protection is a giant propaganda exercise, reinforced by technocrats and apologists who draw their living from the government depredations upon the producers in society.
Erm, you have me very confused here. Are you suggesting that you can't think of an example of a war where the government is defending is citizenry from an external aggressor? I live in the UK and I seem to recall that there was something that went on arnd mid-20th century. Does everything you have said above apply to World War II? I don't know about you, but, living in the UK, I rather enjoy the fact that I get to speak English, rather than German.
 
Come now old chap, you are arguing the position or side of fiat, it is thus incumbent upon you to provide your best argument.
I believe I have. I can do again, if you so desire.
What you are really referring to are tariffs/subsidies, and 'protectionism' as policy. Ricardo exposed the fallacies of protectionism via the theory of comparative advantage hundreds of years ago.
No, that is not at all that what I am referring to, so I am afraid that your refrence to Ricardo is wasted on me in this particular case.
Which are?
Well, de-industrialization of the economy, recession, depression, that sort of thing.
You have made a very 'general' statement, that is factually incorrect. In addition, as nt highlighted, you have also caught yourself in a logical contradiction.
Well, how can a very general statement be factually incorrect? Surely that is more of a contradiction than what I said (which, actually, isn't a logical contradiction, no matter what n_t highlights).

Still, let me make my point even more clear and transparent. As I have said before, "fiat money" and the "gold standard" each possess distinct advantages, as well as flaws. By replacing "fiat money" with the "gold standard", you will be covering one tail risk (to use trading terminology). Namely, the possibility of abuse by the Central Bank. However, it's important to realize that this tail risk protection isn't free. Instead of the 'CB abuse' tail, you will now be short the other tail. Specifically, no domestic agency will have the ability to control money supply at the time of stress, when this ability is normally most needed. We should all choose what tail we want to be short. To me, the choice is relatively clear. This is the sole point I have been repeatedly making in this thread.
 
mg
This again can easily be refuted. I note that even the parable of the ant and grasshopper underlies the economic truth that it is ‘saving’ that creates security. So now let’s move forward and present the correct position in his three areas of contention.

First and foremost it must be stressed that in economics and other social sciences, it is not the ‘inductive method’ that has primacy, rather it is the ‘deductive method’ for the reason that in human affairs all causation is already known: viz. it is ourselves. Thus knowing the causation, we simply need to start from an axiom and deductively progress forward, resulting in truth statements. The theory is thus irrefutable. No amount of empirical evidence can gainsay true theory.

I start with production. For any production, the best method will be chosen. This will include the most up-to-date technology available. In addition the factors of production will be applied and mixed in the optimal fashion: land, labour and capital. The goal will be to produce the most ‘output’ at the minimum ‘input’. The last factor not mentioned in the ‘triad’ is time. The timeframe chosen will be the ‘shortest’ possible timeframe. This underlines the law that ‘present value’ is higher than ‘future value’.

From this we can state that any improvement in the ‘output’ must require a change in the inputs: land, labour, capital and time. Technology is usually quoted as being the most important factor. Technology is important, however it is not the critical factor, which can be illustrated by way of an example: Africa could have access to the technology of the ‘West’ but, without capital, no progress in production can or will take place. It is capital that creates the ability to produce.

As already stated, the ‘shortest’ time period will have been chosen, the most efficient productive process. Thus to increase ‘output’ even adding or subtracting other ‘input’ factors, there must be an increase in the time required to produce. Thus increased output requires additional time, or a longer waiting period for an increased ‘output’ to be produced.

Therefore our increased output results in an aggregate falling time preference amongst consumers. Thus the ‘originary rate of interest’ must fall, signaling the falling time preferences of consumers, who make available increased quantities of capital goods to be transformed into the higher ‘output’ of the longer production period.

Which brings us to the crux of the fallacy that government spending can promote, and is de facto responsible for increased ‘output’. Government spending needs to be defined. How do we separate government spending into ‘consumption spending’ and ‘investment spending’? Simply through an examination of the ‘revenues’ accruing to government. Investment spending will result in ‘investment income’ and consumption spending shortfalls will need to be financed through taxation. Therefore we can examine the empirical data to establish the type of income that government has generated.

Essentially then all government spending is serviced via taxation. Direct taxation via ‘income tax’ or indirect taxation via debt, which implies higher future taxes, or ‘inflation’ viz. money creation to devalue the debt burden. Thus we shall examine the theory of taxation with regard to the professors assertion that government spending via taxation, is the creator of increased production, which is the requirement to create wealth.

Through taxation government has increasingly destroyed the fundamental base upon which capitalism builds wealth. Taxation is as this post proves, illegal. In addition to being illegal, taxation also possesses these rather unfortunate traits: increase unemployment [ii] reduce productivity. Both these together result in decreased [wealth] production.

It is not the ‘type’ of taxation that is important, rather it is the ‘total’ taxation burden that is critical. Taxation takes numerous different forms: income tax [ii] inflation [iii] consumption tax [iv] subsidies [v] tariffs [vi] capital gains tax [vii] patents [viii] copyright [ix] minimum wages and [x] debt

Taxation is a ‘cost’ to the producer that is paid to government as tax revenue. This payment must be made in ‘present value’. By reducing the sum total of present value capital goods, the ability to engage in the allocation of present value capital goods to future value capital goods is reduced. Thus production through the raising of ‘time preferences’ will be reduced in the future, thus reducing supply, thus raising prices in consumer goods and services.

Through a reduction in future production, the employment that would have been created, now is not. If taxes are raised, then productive capital that ‘was’ profitable can be made ‘unprofitable’ and thereby creating unemployment. As I survey the data, the theoretical a priori of taxation becomes starkly apparent.

This is the contradiction. Taxation increases the consumption in ‘present value’ and thus by definition raises time preferences higher. To increase production, the opposite must occur: viz. time preferences must be lowered. QED.

jog on
duc

This has me all confused... I am not sure what the QED is all about. There's nothing in the above that actually responds to the point that I have made. It's, again, a whole lot of words, but I fail to see any substance whatsoever. When did I say anything about 'ants and grasshoppers', 'saving vs consumption', 'inductive' vs 'deductive' or the factors of production or any of this other stuff? Are you sure you're actually talking to me? I don't want to accuse you of anything, but it looks like it's been cut and pasted from somewhere. Maybe I am missing something...
 
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Hardly. Put that premise to the Robinson Crusoe test. If you were stranded on an island with 4 other people do you think creating a Government would be the number one priority? If you want to survive and raise your standard of living, each person within the 'society' would have to be productive. Whether its foraging for food, fishing or building shelter, none of that would happen without the productivity of the members in that society. You couldn't have one person calling themselves 'Government' and claiming that they will tax others in order to provide shelter.Who would build them?
Come on, n_t. Surely this can't be serious...
Through this sentence you state that government is causative of economic progress. If that were true, then Socialism, taken to it's logical conclusion would provide the greatest economic progress of any system.

As this is categorically false, your premise is simply nonsense.
This is very poor logic, indeed...
Incorrect.

As I have already elucidated to 'vg': if 'government' were truly the catalyst for social improvement, then we should logically move to the final position, viz. government owns 100% all the factors of production, land, labour & capital. That logically is the correct position if what you state is true, pure Socialism.

Socialism, as already stated, cannot economically calculate. Thus, your statement is false: it was not 'government' that was responsible for social improvement measured in material well-being. It was capitalism.
This is the similar poor logic again.
Really?


Democracy is an abomination. Let’s examine ‘democracy’ as a monopoly, which it actually is:
...
Through history the theory of monopoly can be seen to drive the ever shrinking number of ‘States’ into ever larger territorial areas that are exploited by monopoly government. There have been stunning reversals, the Soviet Empire imploded of course, but the historical dialectic has been towards consolidation through war and aggression. The inelastic demand curve is inelastic as of course it is 100% coerced. The revenues generated are called ‘tax’.

Monopoly through coercion has a logical conclusion: one world government. Steps have of course been underway for a long time towards this ‘ideal’ using the fiat currency as the primary weapon. Bretton Woods saw the hegemony of the US. drive the implementation of the US dollar as the ‘world reserve’ currency, much as prior to WWI Britain held the unofficial world reserve currency.
And this is stuff that conspiracy theories are made of...

ducati, in summary, having gone through your posts I foresee that we're not likely to have a very meaningful discussion, even though I have enjoyed it so far. It appears that your fundamental premises are a bit unusual and I am not sure we will be able to establish a basic common frame of reference. Still, no harm in trying...
 
mg


You're roughly correct in terms of what I was referring to as industrial policy. However, yet again, you're arguing the exact same point that we have discussed repeatedly.

Must have missed it, I haven't seen much discussion on this thread in relation to that topic. If you know where it is point me in the right direction.


Specifically, I agree that industrial policy can be abused and the extreme cases of these abuses are well-known (I guess that is why you have brought up Socialism).

That's a start I guess, so let's move on.




However, my point is different. I am saying simply that industrial policy is a tool that can be used by governments and some have been successful at it ("infant industry" policies, even though you may disagree with them, are effective).

Infant industries that require government subsidy, simply means that there is not sufficient demand for their supply of 'X" goods/services. Essentially then you are saying, ignore the market signal, government knows best, and will force via taxation and redistribution, the infant industry upon the economy.

You state that this is 'effective'. Really, how? Effective of/to what?



If your government gives up this capability in a competitive setting, it is sacrificing a viable tool, which may or may not come in handy, for the sake of principle. I don't think this is a good idea.

A viable tool for what? Forcing a redistribution that the majority obviously don't want? Are we talking about the 'principal' of liberty? If this is the case, I think that this is a very good idea, as subsidising infant industries that are unwanted/unneeded is not good economics.

jog on
duc
 
mg

Well, apart from your assertion that this is "nonsense" and your general conviction that the government and everything it does is fundamentally evil, what possible evidence is there of this?

Bretton Woods 1944

jog on
duc
 
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