HowardCohodas
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BTW - I just missed a short posting this... grrrr...
Ouch! I'll bet that hurt. It's the price you pay for my education. I thank you.
BTW - I just missed a short posting this... grrrr...
Howard, I think your process is sound. I don't believe your current strategy is, but I think your methods make sense. My 2c...
There are two types of so-called digital options. Those that pay off if the barrier is touched at any point during the life, and those which pay off at expiry if spot is beyond the chosen level.
As a very crude approximation, the "one touch binary" usually has a premium equal to twice that of the "at expiry digital" (where the premium is expressed as a percentage between 0-100).
Based on the underlined section, are you using the one touch binary price as a proxy for the odds of finishing beyond the strike at expiry?
Yes, apart from the fact that Howard's drawdowns are capped (or floored, whichever way you look at it), given that he doesn't do nekkid options.Could one of you option-bods set me straight please?
The way I understand it, Howards current returns are what you would expect with a strategy ike this, only to give them back when an unexpected move comes (the old penny vs steamroller cliché). But the only way it can have any real "edge" is if the implied volatility of the options he sells is consistently above the volatility that is realised.
Have I got the gist?
By process I mean your overall approach to a) finding what you perceive as opportunities; b) risk management. By strategies I mean the particular types of trades you're doing, i.e. selling call/put spreads (you call this "credit spreads") and doing iron condors. Without a much more detailed description of how you calculate the probabilities of "hitting the barrier" I can't meaningfully critique what you're doing. However, I think your description of your edge occurring because there's, effectively, a systematic mis-pricing of spreads suggests to me that you're confused, as I know this isn't the case. However, you're clearly a bright guy (with a sense of humor, which is important), so I'm sure you'll get to the bottom of it.
What do you reckon on this one Howard, you might have missed it?
Agreed. I'd also like to know a little more details regarding the models you are using to compute your probabilities. On the other hand, I'd completely understand if you prefer to keep that to yourself as it seems to be the most important component in your system.
Without a much more detailed description of how you calculate the probabilities of "hitting the barrier" I can't meaningfully critique what you're doing.
However, I think your description of your edge occurring because there's, effectively, a systematic mis-pricing of spreads suggests to me that you're confused, as I know this isn't the case.
Could one of you option-bods set me straight please?
The way I understand it, Howards current returns are what you would expect with a strategy ike this, only to give them back when an unexpected move comes (the old penny vs steamroller cliché). But the only way it can have any real "edge" is if the implied volatility of the options he sells is consistently above the volatility that is realised.
Have I got the gist?
Of course, you picked a bloody awkward instrument to trade when it comes to understanding the relationship between the derivative and the underlying. The indices have both options and futures to consider when looking at the underlying. Obviously the futures volume overshadows the options volume completely and so does their impact.
Based on the underlined section, are you using the one touch binary price as a proxy for the odds of finishing beyond the strike at expiry?
Reading this TOS doc, it seems that they're doing this based on a simple BSM (or should I say, Bachelier-Thorp) approach, which is known to have some, potentially meaningful (depending on your position) flaws. For example, they use a flat ATM vol for the expire ITM/hit probabilities (which, of course, is unavoidable in the BSM world). Given that you're buying/selling spreads, which are priced the way they are due, among other things, to skew, I would treat the results of the calculation with a large grain/pinch/teaspoon of salt. Furthermore, I would question the unequivocal assumption of lognormality, not to mention the real big one that undermines it all, the assumption of mkt completeness.
This can be summarized by the phrase, "however, for all practical purposes."