1. That we don't need any
2. That we need 2 or 3
3. We need many we can choose from
Choice 1.
jog on
duc
1. That we don't need any
2. That we need 2 or 3
3. We need many we can choose from
Your theory from this point forward applies to Humons, and not to humans as science defines them or as is commonly defined.
Feynman would say you should be able to explain to a 6 year-old. That's a stretch, but you get the point. Common words, plain speaking, no jargon, where definitions are not your definitions or that persons definitions, but the common (majority) definition that I can if in doubt within seconds look up in a dictionary. Can you do this? If not, then we're at an impasse.If you can't explain it simply, you don't understand it well enough.
Choice 1.
jog on
duc
Ducati, philosphical ideas debated for the sake if it, have no truth for the real world, they are not applicable as fact or irrefutable, they are just thought experiments which may or may not be useful as a tool, just as mathematics is a tool which may or may not be useful to to real life problems, and I refer you to the quote I originally gave. It hasn't landed yet.
As a philosophical idea, you can reach whatever conclusion you like. I can conclude God exists, I can conclude God doesn't. Can we have things that are both true and false at the same time? In reality, why not. In a theory, it depends. No point trying to argue the case either way regarding God, which is why it is not necessary to go through each step, and I suggested you lay out the entire theory.
Because then we can decide if it's useful as a tool. And because you refuse to reach any sort of common ground on language. I have tried to reach this, you should be aware of this. It does not matter to me whether we call what you're talking about Humans, and the coma, the non-choosers and the mentally diseased we call Humons (or any other word), or the reverse, it's just important that we don't use the same word when referring to different things. However, for others reading, who haven't followed, the dictionary definition of humans would be more apt (my opinion) and you choose a term for what you're referring to.
I have learned long ago, that jargon is unnecessary if you understand what you are talking about. And usually it obfuscates the issue, or the person doesn't really understand the concept and uses jargon as a shield to hide behind. This is not you, but you are complicating the issue (my opinion) whether you realise it or not. I have long been a holder of the view
Feynman would say you should be able to explain to a 6 year-old. That's a stretch, but you get the point. Common words, plain speaking, no jargon, where definitions are not your definitions or that persons definitions, but the common (majority) definition that I can if in doubt within seconds look up in a dictionary. Can you do this? If not, then we're at an impasse.
Humans, act, displaying intentional behaviour.
Humans act purposefully, constrained by time. The nature of time necessitates that purposefully acting requires a choice be made. Choosing necessitates that one "thing" be preferred over another "thing."
As no objections were raised to the previous post...
Choosing one "thing" over another "thing" necessitates a valuation. The "thing" more highly valued being chosen over the "thing" less valued.
I am not the one playing semantic games, I believe you are. You have not made an argument yet. You have made some ssumpitons which are unclear in their meaning.
I already gave you the common dictionary definition of humans, yet you ask for it. You can look in a dictionary, or read my post. If you don't know what Homo Sapiens are, again, you can look in the dictionary and find out. See the benefit of plain speaking in common dictionary words yet? Rather than having to ask every single post what the other person might mean, you can find what they mean in a short time.
The population of humans on earth is approaching 7 billion. What about the people you are talking about? Do they exist? How many of them are there? Are they on Earth? Are they also part of the human race? What are they called?
I think we had this some time ago.
Along came an organised work force with central decision making body and enforced their view on everyone else who did not submit to their view..
I think they were called Romans who introduced civilisation to the Barbarians.
Already been tried and tested as this is how life began and evolved to what we have today.
If you pursue your arguments to the n'th degree you'll come to the conclusion that better organisation and unification is the successful model over isolation, individualism, freedom etc., call it what you will.
Club together and beat the **** out of anything different are in humans DNA. No amount of theory or assumptions will change that. We have millions of years of history and evolution to back it up. Some will kill you for wearing the wrong colour football shirt, do you think they are going to stop at a piece of paper declaring human rights?
I can just imagine a farmer waving his property deeds of paper at Atillas' huns or at Roman centurions.
The winners will once again be the biggest and bravest who take risks and can enforce their view. You may choose to call this private insurance or judicial courts but I can see how they may well be contested based on your other bloggs. I can just imagine big surge in demand for the Mafia - the new legitimised face of free market capitalism based on a new set of pyscho-socio-political-economics.
You are aware that private armies and security firms are on the increase? Some call them private military contractors, security firms or armies. Check out Blackwater. So instead of showing up as spending on military budgets - numbers show up as investment in companies.
How wonderful. In the absence of government I doubt any firm, contractor or private body would be strong enough to take on these "Institutions". Does anyone remember any Blackwater security official facing disciplinary charges (as they do if one is a marine in the army)? No.
You should be careful what you wish for?
My view is instead of scrapping government we need to fix it by taking out big private vested interests that corrupt and bend politicians. Capitalism and greed and working 10 hour days has a lot to do with the way life is going today.
And, what exactly, happened to the Roman Empire. Then, assuming you know the answer, which I'm sure you do, answer, why?
Over extended and superseded - pretty much the way all super powers and empires go... Because as with capitalism common denominator "the human factor" knows greed and no boundaries.
Correct.
Economics provides the correct attribution for this fact. It is the "Division of Labour." The division of labour promotes co-operation, as, more can be produced through specialization, than individual self-sufficiency.
Text book theory of international trade.
Trace this backwards, and forwards, and what ideology accounts correctly for this? Oh, its "Capitalism" fancy that. If you disagree, then define Socialism, and account for how they produce either products, or society.
You keep raising socialism. My view is any system which is the same for all players and fair is a good working system. Any system which is not being biased and bent - will ultimately fail.
We are talking about efficiency and equity not equality. People are not equal and so can not and should not be treated equally. I've said this before and the same applies to taxation. Ethics of taxation dictate that if people earning the same income, they should be taxed equally. Similarly people earning unequal income should be taxed unequally. Whether that is regressive, flat or aggressive taxation is up for debate.
Socialism fails on this point of trying to treat unequals the same. Also failing to reward innovation. I repeat life is more about equity and efficiency not equality.
Anarchy simply means without "government" which is the "State." It does not mean without "Law" or without "Punishment" or without a means of enforcement. It means that these [goods] and services can be provided in another way, viz. the "free market."
They are already provided by the free market. Governments facilitate the environment. You should speak to the Trade and Industry Secretary. Vince Cable | Ministers | BIS I like Vince Cable a lot actually. Feel he would make the best PM imo. Talks a lot of good sense.
What is it you exactly disagree with in government now that we have established you are against any government.
Really, how?
I have trouble with private companies setting up judicial courts. My view is that markets are not perfect but on the contrary imperfect. You can't manage hospitals and social services based on profit. Same goes for education. People will associate a value of a candidate or their degree based on price paid for the course. So if you graduate from University of Westminster (£16K p/a school) compared to say Leicester (£9K) is that a fair comparison?
Now please don't give me an economic argument justifying it but this is clearly a lot of nonsense imo. The same applies for Oxford and Cambridge and all other top university graduates.
Whose military budgets might those be?
Tax payers...
Why is that? Government exemption?
You bet - endorsing the defence companies interests fighting stupid wars. Lot's of slush funds in government books and easier to hide expenditure. Politically easier to explain and justify.
Which is exactly what Corporatism is. Which is exactly what we have today.
I concur but corporatism is capitalism. Making money maximising profits / bonuses what ever in the free market. They do what they have to.
jog on
duc
I concur but corporatism is capitalism.
Markets are imperfect. Capitalism is based on incorrect assumptions which have no basis in the real economy.
There, exactly is the source of all you error: corporatism is not capitalism [ii] there are no free market failures.
We have already looked at the most commonly cited example, viz. monopoly. That you have zero idea with regard to monopoly, has been now made abundantly clear to me. But hell, if you wish to cite the other usual suspects, or god forbid, one of your own, I'm game.
With regard to the Roman question...historians, are quite commonly acknowledging the reason for the fall of Rome to be....wait for it...inflation.
jog on
duc
Corporatism, capitalism or socialism and good few other ism's are all a bit of a fad really.
All about taking ownership and possessing people in what ever way you want to achieve some utopia ending.
To state someone who does not agree with your views knows zero about monopoly is very rich indeed.
Monopoly as an analytic a priori proposition: monopoly is an entity [institution] that exists in the absence of any market competition.
Defining ‘monopoly’ as an institution that can as a producer of goods and services [within its market] raise revenues through the restriction of supply: this is and must be due to an inelastic demand curve.
What is your suggestion about government?
1. That we don't need any
2. That we need 2 or 3
3. We need many we can choose from
Choice 1.
jog on
duc
You see...drivel.
Continuing...
Eliminate all taxes as illegal
[ii] Default on all government debt
[iii] Return to the free market to set interest rates based on time preferences.
[iv] Eliminate all government expenditures
[v] Eliminate all fiat money, return to a gold coin standard.
[v] Eliminate fractional reserve lending. 100% reserving.
[vi] Eliminate government legislative monopoly [if they still managed to exist of course.]
I have provided what I would do, if I could. Just consider, before you, or anyone else becomes hysterical, there is solid theory behind each recommendation, so if you wish to argue the point, be my guest, but you need to be on point.
jog on
duc
You believe it is me that is hair splitting. The reason I point out to you that your arguments don't apply in every second, and don't apply to every human, is because when they don't apply every second and to every human the resulting conclusions - if they ever arrived - would then not apply unquestionably across all people and all times. The fact that you continue to argue this, and refuse to accept it and continue the logical process, indicates that you yourself know it is not hair-splitting because it is of enough import for you to refuse to move on while it stands. That's not hairsplitting, that's crucial. To you, to your argument.
Ducati, philosphical ideas debated for the sake if it, have no truth for the real world, they are not applicable as fact or irrefutable, they are just thought experiments which may or may not be useful as a tool, just as mathematics is a tool which may or may not be useful to to real life problems
What you quoted prior to this response is clearly a question. What are the humans you're talking about? Do they have any relation to humans on earth? You have given no real definition. The fact it gets this response indicates your general attitude. Which has now become poor. Until now the discussion has been polite.
Because then we can decide if it's useful as a tool. And because you refuse to reach any sort of common ground on language. I have tried to reach this, you should be aware of this. It does not matter to me whether we call what you're talking about Humans, and the coma, the non-choosers and the mentally diseased we call Humons (or any other word), or the reverse, it's just important that we don't use the same word when referring to different things. However, for others reading, who haven't followed, the dictionary definition of humans would be more apt (my opinion) and you choose a term for what you're referring to.
I am not the one playing semantic games, I believe you are. You have not made an argument yet. You have made some ssumpitons which are unclear in their meaning.
The population of humans on earth is approaching 7 billion. What about the people you are talking about? Do they exist? How many of them are there? Are they on Earth? Are they also part of the human race? What are they called?
You have now become rude, rather than answer some very simple questions. Frustration that you cannot explain things simply perhaps. As you taught me, time constraint requires that a choice be made.
Feynman would say you should be able to explain to a 6 year-old. That's a stretch, but you get the point. Common words, plain speaking, no jargon, where definitions are not your definitions or that persons definitions, but the common (majority) definition that I can if in doubt within seconds look up in a dictionary. Can you do this? If not, then we're at an impasse.
And, as in your analogy, rudeness is my signal to get out of the trade.
Which positive examples of no government do you have in mind?
The only examples that immediately spring to my mind are negative:
Somalia.
Columbia.
Ok more accurately, they are examples of no effective govt.
Surely that is not too far removed from no govt.
I can't see how Columbia and Somalia would drastically change without any govt.
The point I am making is:
No government usually leads to violent power struggles, not efficient free markets.
I can't think of a single modern example of no government being a positive.
For that matter I struggle to think of any historical examples either.
A power vacuum is always filled by something or someone.
That is essentially a form of governance, even if it is violent, brutal and dictatorial.
Surely you mean limited govt. as opposed to no govt?
At least with limited govt. there are good examples - Monaco for one.
Although the Monaco model could not be applied in
many other places - wealth is a barrier to entry.
Its that barrier to entry that makes the limited govt. model work in Monaco,
not the limited govt itself.
That pretty much leaves most other countries with no option other than
some form of govt.
Sorry, while I find the last post where you responded to my question in our previous discussion, duc, let me ask you something about the above...
I find myself intensely curious about the "solid theory" behind some of the items above. The most interesting bit is items [v] (both of them). I confess that I find myself somewhat disappointed that you include them, given that I figured you for a full-on "free markets" kind of guy/girl.
Right, I see, so you're for free markets, but only up to a certain arbitrary point?Item [v] Eliminate fractional reserve lending. 100% reserving.
This is the easiest condition to put into place. Fractional reserve lending is responsible for the huge creation of credit, which is fiduciary media. 100% reserving removes the ability of the banks to violate the demand deposit contract, and eliminates the fractional reserve lending base on which they rely.
With only the ability to create loans based on "time deposits" 100% reserving allows loans, but eliminates the ability to leverage that lending base.
This is exactly the free market under the Rule of Law. Banks are not exempt from the law. They must adhere to the law on the same basis as everyone. Fractional reserve lending of demand deposits is an exemption from the law granted by government.
jog on
duc
So what entity will be doing the "looking"? What entity, in your private judiciary, is going to have the responsibility and power to make sure that the Supreme Court doesn't get taken over by private interests, either explicitly or under the table? And you didn't come back to me on whether the Supreme Court is a participant in the private justice market, i.e. whether it can be taken over?Essentially nothing. All that needs to be looked at is how the various Judges are compensated. We know that they all originate from Lower Courts. Simply tie their compensation to the Lower Court. The fee's from the Supreme Court simply are donated to various charities.
I am afraid that I cannot share your "it really won't be a problem" attitude. It's reasonably easy for me to imagine all sorts of ways the incumbents can prevent "free entry" into the market.With free entry to the market, new competitors can enter. Again, if they offer a better service, they will gain market share. There are all manner of "arbitration" services that can pre-empt any move to the Courts. It really wouldn't be a problem.
This is rather shocking. Pls tell me you didn't say this, as this is in glaring contradiction to basic rules of first-order logic.If it is "necessary" then it must be "sufficient."
Why does the reason for me building it matter? Suppose I did it to exercise the principle of ownership of my private property, no more, no less...Why would you just build it, invest the capital, without first ensuring that there would be no objections? A nuclear plant is hardly non-controversial.
Yes, and so they have...I said that the plaintiffs would need to demonstrate and prove that their property rights were being violated. It would not suffice just to "not like it."
Right, so is this not what I said? My property right violated another's property right and was superseded. Does this, yet again, not demonstrate that "property rights" aren't absolute? Indeed, my ability to exercise my property rights, as I have demonstrated, depends on external factors and therefore cannot be considered an "axiom".No. Your property right, is only a valid right, in that it does not violate another's valid property right.
Correct. You are violating no other's valid property rights.
It is incorrect. The causation are property rights. If you can prove that your nuclear plant does not violate any valid property rights, you can build, irrespective of location.
A fad. That's what you come up with as your analysis and argument.
It is about ownership, viz. property rights.
It is not that you don't agree, it is that you simply cannot actually address the arguments presented in any rational or coherent manner. All that I conclude is either: you simply do not have the knowledge or capability to engage or [ii] you purposefully want to distract, introduce propaganda, or deliberately mislead.
I opted for as it seemed kinder.
If you wish to prove me wrong, rather than simply opining, here is a single issue starting point.
jog on
duc
But you see, duc, this is the beauty of my position. I am not making categorical statements or offering a competing paradigm. I don't have to provide evidence or prove anything. I just have to provide counterexamples to disprove your assertions.I note that you offer no evidence whatsoever, empirical or otherwise.
So let us examine some empirical evidence. The evidence is with regard to the competing theorems of money, viz. gold based, and fiat based.
In the first period, starting 1860, the tremendous inflation was due to the unchecked printing of "greenbacks" to finance the Civil War. After the war ended, the tremendous deflation was the return to a gold standard. After the economy stabilised, gold provided a period of "relative" stability. Gold's price, the price of money, will fluctuate as will any commodity, stability is a chimera, and you do not want prices static, unable to adjust to changing conditions. After 1913, and the implementation of the Federal Reserve System, we again see the effects of a fiat based money.