I think this is the first seriuzz (is it even seriuzz?) and definately the tldr-iest post I’ve ever made on here. I know a lot of what I’m about to say is an egg sucking lesson, but it’s helping the flow of my though process so forgive me lulz are in order.
Scose’s musing and questions/points for discussion are as follows:
All financial markets are driven by macroeconomic activity.
I'm sure the vast majority will agree that they are (but this is trade2win after all and sometimes I think that the 200ma is give more significance than “funnymentals”) and so we are left with the question of what signifies the underlying economic trend or a change therein and what constitutes noise. The noise is what we’re referring to as a random variable/random price behaviour but what it really is imho, is the intra-day gaming which pushes the natural supply/demand relationship out of a conceptual (and I'm almost certain non-existent) equilibrium and into relative extremes. If this is the case then these extremes can be upper or lower bound and so we're left with what is essentially an unknown quantity which may or may not be treated as a random variable. But... people make a living from assessing and trading from this type of price movement so it's likely not random. Couple that with my favourite subject which is EMH and arbing (oomph!) and other pricing mechanisms and you're left with a market view that would have Salvador Dali keeled over the sh1tter with nausea. So does Scose agree that he short term market is random? Yes and no but also yes and no. Digging a little deeper, insofar as a multitude of parties being required to buy/sell at any given time, yes, but the functions of basic auction theory and methods of liquidity provisiorrrr prrrrrovide a structure of sorts, so no. Then you have front running algo stuff to consider. This b0llocks is imho, where the short term trading opps are and where the inefficiency is. Looking at anything else short-term and you’re kidding yourself.
Now that we had added a sufficient degree of over-thinking the most basic facets of price movement, let us now move on to what constitutes randomness. This word is bandied about rather often on t2w and I’m not sure whether I’m being ignorant, everyone is lulzy or the word just isn’t really understood by some. The word random is tossed out and the sacrilege brigade fly off the handle and start Ross Hook the cheeks, auction hammer the faces or dojify (crucify + doji) those who dare utter the dreaded word. Statistics 101 or whatever the UK equivalent is (probably year 10/11 from some things I’ve seen) tells you that random doesn’t necessarily mean even distributed. What if at any given time our variable has a 60% chance of going one way and a 40% chance of going the other? Is that still not random? What if our random variable is normally distributed or leptokurtic (the concept that Robster w@nks over) or even displays some skew? Surely this is not outside the realms of possibility is it? If the markets are indeed driven by macro-economic trends which take time to play out wouldn’t we expect more people to be on one side of the trade than the other as they manage exposure or future expectations? Wouldn’t this effect supply and demand equilibrium? Wouldn’t this mean you’re more likely to make a profit buying rather than selling or vice versa as the macro case may be? Doesn’t this mean skewed returns? Doesn’t a skew in returns translate to a skewed probability distribution? Would this skewed distribution exhibit leptokurtosis (not going to go into why here)? How would all of this exhibit itself on a price chart? It would look like a trend wouldn’t it? Isn’t a trend just like a bull market or whatever the TA term is? Aren’t pullbacks etc extremely similar to how a chart of the inevitable outcome of a series of non-evenly distributed random events would look? While prices may or may not be random in and of themselves, given the above, shouldn’t a statistical process be a good enough proxy for analytical purposes-for providing a framework or approach to understanding?
So I ask, if you accept the above, is it not the case that some TA i.e. trendlines, pullbacks, S&R etc encompass a form of statistical analysis? Are these ‘lines’ not are an extremely crude, colouring-book approach to a set of more complex principles?
The question then, imho, becomes not one of whether TA is a nonsense, or mumbo jumbo, or witchcraft, or tea leaf reading. It becomes a question of the degree of rigorousness that should be applied before analysis can be relied upon. Touching on Spec-Ks notion of “fine level” TA trading, which I’m assuming is looking at bounces or patterns in isolation etc over the very short-term/watching specific levels in great detail, to me, this means that all you’re doing is using a very crude form of statistical analysis on a very small sample size. From this, can we not infer that over the longer term i.e. a more significant sample size, TA should become more accurate an indicator?
Now I ask what exactly is TA an indicator of? Well if we go back to TA being a crude form of statistical analysis which if carried properly would give us some sort of quantitative definition or framework to assess a probability distribution which in turn, in the context of trading, is a function of macroeconomic variables, then doesn’t TA give us a crude weighting of macroeconomic outlook- a crude weighting of which the performance of the multitude of components of our instruments pricing mechanism? So is TA not also a very crude for of macro-economic analysis? Well in this case the answer lies in the macro pricing mechanism itself.
Now me personally, as an accountant, I’m all about pricing and how much something costs. Side-stepping the whole discussion about why this is probably a bad mentality to have in regards to trading, in particular short term trading (especially so for someone of my unexceptional intellect), we have to think about what the pricing mechanisms are and their purpose and their structure.
In contrast to the whole statistical majiggy which is based on analysis of past prices for assumptions of the future- the main concern of detractors from this type of approach as we’re in a dynamic environment - pricing is based on assumptions about the future (which ironically are somewhat comprised by past events). As far as I’m aware, the best statistical framework from which to approach pricing is non-linear regression and my quant knowledge falls short of this stuff. For the rest of the uninitiated, what I do to compensate for my shortcomings is to assume a linear approach e.g.
P= a(?) +bx +b2x +b2x +b4x.... with however many variables you can shake a stick at.
And then I assume that that at any given time, one variable, or perhaps a small set of variables will have more weighting over the price than at others. This is evident at times like QE announcements etc when prices rip upwards despite Gadaffi saying he’s cutting off the world’s oil supply or whatever.
Now without getting into what the variables, which differ from instrument to instrument -but let’s say that they’re heavily interest rate dependant - are, if the market is priced by these expectations and it’s trending or has a major reversal, hasn’t TA captured the majority opinion in the case of the former and a fundamental shift in the case of the latter. Which variable it is would possibly be decipherable from the technical news sources but it’s quite irrelevant if you’re watching the resultant isn’t it? So does TA allow us to infer where the pricing mechanism is taking us? Is this linked into market psychology or to technical due diligence and complex analysis? I would probably argue yes in the short term (shake outs etc which brings us back to intra-day gaming etc) for the former and longer term for the latter which is where we would consider institutional and real money positioning.
And so we come full circle with each and every one of these concepts being inexorably linked to the other.
What is the point of all of this you ask? Who knows? I was very bored and once I got started I couldn’t stop. As a side point, I’m sure that the only thing that hedge funds do is introduce volatility into the markets and I’d love someone who has an opinion on this to start a discussion on it some time and give me something to ponder on.
Now this is all likely absolute b0llocks and I have no idea of how to apply any of the above to the coin flip scenario but why bother with it anyway? If you’re into trading randomly, for me, you’re better off with a time interval based entry with the prevailing trend. This way you’ve got the distribution of returns on your side (shortmed-med term) and the event driven weighting of the macro-economic variables in your side (med-long term) too... until you haven’t.
All of my (possibly and probably rubbish) opinion is based on what I would say is short-med to long term trading so I’m very interested in what people have to say about random trading in the short term where I think you have to learn and think or die. I’m also interested in any discussion on the above obviously. Not now though, I’m going out and will probably be smashed in an hour.
Why did I write any of this?
Scose