Jason Rogers
Senior Member
Join Date: Jun 2009
Posts: 343
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Trading Experience: More than 5 Years
Trading Work Status: Spare-Time
Preferred Trading Style: Swing Trader
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Re: Spread betting at FXCM
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Quote:
Originally Posted by montmorencyt2w
Someone else will no doubt give a fuller answer, but as a quick answer, the FXCM is a bit more like a "proper" trading account, with an SB wrapper to give UK residents the tax advantage that this offers.
This is a great explanation and couldn't have said it better myself.
We basically took the rolling spot forex account, and gave it an SB wrapper to give UK residents the tax advantage.
Here's an explanation with numerical examples as to why it doesn't always equal to £1/pt on our platform.
Let's use the GBP/USD as an example. The banks are accepting trades in standardized amounts of currency such as standard lots of 100,000 (100k), mini lots of 10,000, and some banks will accept micro lots of 1,000. This is very basic, but when you trade currencies, you exchange 1 of the first currency for the quoted amount of the second.
So let's suppose current buy price for GBP/USD is 1.5983. This means you can buy £1 for $1.5983. If you trade a standard lot of 100,000 (100k), you have bought £100,000 for $159,830 at the current buy price. If the sell price then rises to 1.5984 (gain of 1 pip), your position is worth $159,840. The gain in value by a 1 pip movement is $10. By exchanging $10 into £ at the current exchange rate ($10 / $1.5984), you then get 6.26£/pt. The point value can fluctuate as the GBP/USD rate changes.
You always end up with a profit or loss denominated in the second currency quoted in the pair. If you traded a USD denominated account, the pip value would always be equal to $10 since the profit is in USD, and your account is denominated in USD. If your account is denominated in GBP, the profit has to be exchanged back into GBP.
jason so am i correct in assuming in my earlier post that in terms of the pound (the currency every uk resident in particular will be spending once profit is made and witdrawn from the account) every pip gain in real terms is only 60% of what your return would be relative to other SB firms in the UK on the GU one of the most popular pairs out there?
I may have missed an explanation already but can you elaborate as to why you do this?
appologies for returning to this particular subject but 40% of your possible profits per the pound is alot to go missing.
in my humble opnion if you could reverse this calc somehow to reflect the £1 per pip you'd have the icing on the cake and add metatrader you'd have the figurine on the icing and you would def have it sewn up on th SB front in the UK at least
cheers
cb