Talk of 'somebody' taking an SB to court to win a case on a Price error is just ridiculous. You might as well walk into a Farrari forecourt, take the last zero off the price of the car on display, and then try to get them to sell it to you at the displayed price whilst at the same time threatening to take them to court if they do not comply.
I seem to remember an online store a few years ago offered a white good at something like £2.49 instead of £249.00. Thousands of people bought the product but the store just rejected all the deals even though the clients had already paid.
Simon
Simon,
Obviously 50 odd pips on USDJPY (which seems to be what triggered this whole debate) is clearly a fairly large error in terms of a spread bet and the person in question appeared to accept fairly quickly that the entry to his position was made on a dubious quote. Why could you not reach an agreement with the client to amend the opening level of the bet to an agreeable level? Why was the bet cancelled in full? Being the ‘cynic’ that I am I think that you take this approach (of cancelling the bet outright) to stop someone being tempted into trading a dubious price in the first place – the idea being that a good deal of time might pass before the error is reversed thus presenting the client with a problem if they wished to lay the bet off elsewhere – in laying the bet off there is a risk that the hedge would lose money and leave the client out of pocket if the main original leg of the bet was cancelled in full. Am I close?
Interestingly I was walking past my local Travel Agent at lunchtime. I noticed that he appears to be offering a rate of $1.94 to the GBP. On returning to my desk I see that the rate of exchange is 1.9980. Given that Travel Agents fall under FSA remit (in terms of exchange rate transactions) would I be able to claim a ‘palpable error’ (after the event) if I was to accept his lousy exchange rate offer or is he just offering a deal which I can either accept or reject? How is it that a Travel Agent can ‘offer’ such deals which are clearly so far from the ‘underlying market’ and this still be qualified as a ‘regulated business’. In that respect our good friends ‘50 pip erroneous trade’ is dwarfed by my local travel agent’s 580 pip ‘error’. Apparently the deal is termed ‘commission free’!!
My comments are obviously ‘tongue in cheek’. The point that I am trying to make is that anyone, or any business, can offer any deal that they like. If you are shrewd you will wait and look for a better rate. If you are in a hurry and you’re flying (from T5!) tonight then you might find that you want to take the offer of 1.94 to save time. There is no law which states the rate which MUST be offered and there is no law which says that someone cannot exercise their right to accept that offer.
You bring up the subject of the Ferrari forecourt. There are a number of fairly obvious technicalities with your analogy. Firstly you say “Take the last zero off the price of the car on display” – Surely this is an attempt to create a ‘deception with the intent to defraud’ or perhaps an ‘attempt to gain goods through deception’? You are hoping that the removal of the zero will go unnoticed? Or are you, secondly, implying that the attachment of a price ticket to a car in a showroom constitutes ‘an offer to contract’? (Which it doesn’t! A price tag is classed as an ‘Invitation To Treat’ – A price, if ‘offered’ by a potential client’, may or may not be accepted by the vendor. Remember.... offers are made by the clients and accepted or rejected by the vendor.
There are therefore several reasons why this analogy does not work in the context of what is being debated here. Firstly, nobody has fiddled with you advertised quote in an attempt to obtain a more advantageous price. So far as I know it is not possible for clients to alter your prices in such a manner? Therefore there is no attempt to defraud you or obtain a contract with you (ie open a spread bet) by using the deception that you suggest in your post. Secondly (and most critically in this matter), your quoting of a price does not constitute an offer to contract in just the same way that the price tag hanging on the car didn’t. Instead your quotation is an ‘Invitation To Treat’. When attempting to trade the client makes an offer to you to trade at your indicated price. The choice on whether that offer is accepted or rejected is entirely your choice and it is the outcome of that decision which determines if a contract is formed or not. In your analogy you imply that our argument is, in some way, connected to just seeing the price on the screen (or the price tag hanging on the car) and expecting the vendor to agree to contract regardless. This is not the argument and does not resemble what has been written.
Your analogy, in context, would be something like this;
You walk onto the forecourt and notice that one of the cars has a price tag which, to your knowledge, represents a saving of around xx% of the true market value. The dealer comes over and exchanges pleasantries. You say to the dealer that you are interested in car and ask about the normal particulars. Everything with regard to the car checks out so you make the dealer ‘an offer’ on the car which reflects the price shown in the windscreen (obviously we haven’t tampered with the screen price in just the same way as we don’t tamper with your pricing software). The dealer then has a choice to make – just like you do when a client offers to enter a bet with you. If the dealer accepts the offer, draws up the invoice, accepts your payment and throws you the documents + keys etc then the car is yours. If, 24 hours later, the dealer realises that he could have sold the car for more then there is nothing that he can do. Do you think that he can cancel the invoice, return your payment and then just call round and collect the car without you having any say in the matter? This is a far closer analogy to what you are suggesting is reasonable.
You mention the white goods for £2.49 instead of £249. I am not familiar with that case. What I would say, based on what you have written, is that there are grounds for ‘breach of contract’. A similar thing happened with Dell Computers some years back and they had to honour the orders with clients who had had their payments processed to their bank cards before Dell spotted the error.
I’ve spoken with another mate specifically about this subject and I regard his as an expert. His opinion is similar to mine. The pivotal moment is technically when the offer to contract is accepted. He says it’s a matter of ‘legal title’. At the point that the acceptance of a deal occurs the ‘legal title’ to the item in question moves from Party A to Party B. This is the same be it a motor car, spread bet or a packet of Kellogg’s Corn Flakes. Once Party B has legal title to the item Party A cannot lay claim to it and neither is Party A entitled to demand the item back simply because they were the prior owner. In order to get the item back Party A must go through the same procedure of offer and acceptance which Party B went through to acquire the item.
Steve.