how can some currency pairs be negative in correlation to eachother?
Perhaps rather than ask
You could ask, is it possible for all currencies (or exchange rates) to be positively correlated to eachother?
But it is possible because they are - all are linked to the dollar...which is linked to....nothing.....as the gold standard was abolished in the 60s (or 70s).
I am still none the wiser to my original Question :help:
So start with the correlation between EUR/USD and USD/EUR. Both are 'linked' to the dollar. Next extend the thought to something less trivial, i.e. not just the inverse relationship, but consider more currencies.
Why does the USD/JPY link to the EUR/JPY, but the USD/JPY is negative to the EUR/USD
I've wondered that, myself. The pair does not seem to be named correctly. Should it not be JPN/USD if the chart says 100?
Hi Hybrid,
To understand these correlations, it's first important to know how to read a currency quote. The first currency listed in a currency pair is the base currency. The second currency is the counter currency (AKA the quote currency).
So for USD/JPY, USD is the base currency, and JPY is the counter currency. For EUR/JPY, EUR is the base currency, JPY is the counter currency.
When you look at the chart for a currency pair and see the price rising, it means the base currency is rising in value relative to the counter currency. It is equally correct to say that the counter currency is falling in value relative to the base currency.
Going back to the example of USD/JPY and EUR/JPY, since JPY is the counter currency for both pairs, you will see both pairs rise in value when JPY falls, and both pairs will fall in value when JPY rises.
If you compare USD/JPY and EUR/USD, the one currency both pairs have in common is USD. However, USD is the base currency of USD/JPY, while it's the counter currency of EUR/USD. The means, if USD is rising in value, you will see USD/JPY rise while EUR/USD falls.
I hope that helps.
Jason
still, no such thing as a silly question :whistling
I've wondered that, myself. The pair does not seem to be named correctly. Should it not be JPN/USD if the chart says 100?
Splitlink is this sarcasm or have you been into the snuff again....? USD is the control if quoted first and therefore it is named correctly (i.e. 100 JPY to make a single USD). Just as the Euro is the static control in EUR/USD and you need 1.33 USD to make a single EUR.
I just think of this as a fraction to help me, i.e. if you have the fraction a/b=2, then you'd probably agree a=2*b
So
EUR/USD=1.33 means
1 EUR = 1.33 USD
If it was JPY/USD=96 then 1 JPY would be 96 dollars.
Take a look at the charts and tell me again. The scale is Yen to the dollar, but the title does not conform to the rule, does it? If it does, what about the Euro/USD chart?
I always thought that the control was quoted second.
Da, the EUR/USD proves the USD/JPY cross as being correct. The latter currency requirement to buy a single unit of the the former is quoted on the Y-axis in both cases. They both conform to exactly the same rule.
1.33 USDs to buy the EUR. 100 JPYs to buy the USD.