Assume your looking at a bar chart with volume showing a rise of 10-points on 2000 lots.
Reasonably, one could assume buyers predominated.
Now look at the DOM and Time and Sales. There are 10 lots on the bid, 10 lots on the offer. 10 lots are sold and the price ticks down. The next trade, as shown on T&S is a 1000 lots sold. However, this hasn't gone through the book/DOM and the price is unchanged, but it is added to the voluime on the chart. Therefore, it's contribution to price change is false.
The frequency of these "off-exchange(?)" trades seems to be increasing, and with decreasing sizes. I saw a 30-lot go through "ex-book" today (Stoxx or Bobl - can't remeber which). This leads to a distortion of the market picture and therefore questionable interpretation (as if spoofing wasn't bad enough).
Can someone explain how and why this happens? I presume it's between two members but why is it done? If your selling, your trade will add pressure to the downside.
Grant.
Reasonably, one could assume buyers predominated.
Now look at the DOM and Time and Sales. There are 10 lots on the bid, 10 lots on the offer. 10 lots are sold and the price ticks down. The next trade, as shown on T&S is a 1000 lots sold. However, this hasn't gone through the book/DOM and the price is unchanged, but it is added to the voluime on the chart. Therefore, it's contribution to price change is false.
The frequency of these "off-exchange(?)" trades seems to be increasing, and with decreasing sizes. I saw a 30-lot go through "ex-book" today (Stoxx or Bobl - can't remeber which). This leads to a distortion of the market picture and therefore questionable interpretation (as if spoofing wasn't bad enough).
Can someone explain how and why this happens? I presume it's between two members but why is it done? If your selling, your trade will add pressure to the downside.
Grant.