There are lots of instruments which use leverage. I realised something a while back, which I think is unfair, but didn't affect me at the time because I used instruments or traded in such a way that I was unaffected. However I think this is an issue for many traders
Lets take an example of a retail trader who trades indices via a spreadbet.
Under current UK regulation, the margin (AKA deposit) to open a leveraged indices trade is 5%. (It's 20% on shares, and varies on other instruments) The spreadbet co. (SB) then effectively lends you the additional 95% to open the trade.
However they charge the overnight fee on 100% of the trade value, whereas I think it should be 95% in my example.
The answers from the SBs I've queried this with so far state that the 'deposit' does not contribute to the trade, but by having that money there means they will lend you the money.
This is what it says on the IG site:
When placing a spread bet or CFD, you’re using leverage. This means you are effectively being lent the money required to open your position, outside the initial deposit you’ve paid. To keep your position open after 10pm (UK time), an interest adjustment will be made to your account to reflect the cost of funding your position overnight (my italics) ; I read that as they are lending 95%, but it is ambiguous and could be interpreted differently, but I still think it's wrong.
I don't think this is fair. What do you think?
I'm quite prepared to take this up with the regulator, but would like some opinions on this in case I'm wasting my time.
Lets take an example of a retail trader who trades indices via a spreadbet.
Under current UK regulation, the margin (AKA deposit) to open a leveraged indices trade is 5%. (It's 20% on shares, and varies on other instruments) The spreadbet co. (SB) then effectively lends you the additional 95% to open the trade.
However they charge the overnight fee on 100% of the trade value, whereas I think it should be 95% in my example.
The answers from the SBs I've queried this with so far state that the 'deposit' does not contribute to the trade, but by having that money there means they will lend you the money.
This is what it says on the IG site:
When placing a spread bet or CFD, you’re using leverage. This means you are effectively being lent the money required to open your position, outside the initial deposit you’ve paid. To keep your position open after 10pm (UK time), an interest adjustment will be made to your account to reflect the cost of funding your position overnight (my italics) ; I read that as they are lending 95%, but it is ambiguous and could be interpreted differently, but I still think it's wrong.
I don't think this is fair. What do you think?
I'm quite prepared to take this up with the regulator, but would like some opinions on this in case I'm wasting my time.