I know I'm reviving an old thread, but I think it's worth it.
I'm curious about what has caused the perfect negative correlation between IWM and TLT. Those seem to have run counter to each other for the last few years, all the ups and downs perfectly matched, if you had taken an aggregate of both and had put that in your portfolio you would have got a steady, even positive return - albeit modest and inferior to that of equities, except as we were going through a crisis.
My question would be, as TLT consists of 20+ treasury bonds, surely those bonds wouldn't have been issued by the government calculated to mirror out the reverse of the equity curve? Because that'd mean the government would have looked at the equity curve and in relation to that decide to price their bonds, which I find hard to believe. Which leads me to one of three possibilities:
a. The relationship is pure coincidence
b. The relationship is due to pricing by the fund issuer with intent so that their fund can be used for hedging
c. The relationship is due to supply and demand on the fund that drives the price according to the willingness or unwillingness of the fund holders to hedge, so it has no intrinsic relation to the treasuries held, or the relation to the treasuries held is weaker or has less of an effect on price than the effect of supply and demand on the fund
Which one is it? I'm thinking it is c, but I don't know. Or is it simply that there's an overarching well stablished relationship between these parts of the economy and there's nothing unnatural about this?
And perhaps a secondary question, Could it be that this perfect inverse relationship is going to end as the US is going to raise interest rates? And how much will each percent increase in the interest rate affect TLT? One percent fund price drop per each percent rate increase, or at a higher multiple?
Thanks.