Gentlemen,
I'm having difficulty with this. Maybe some kind soul will take pity.
Assume a 5000 strike is 250 points itm and trading at 20% iv.
A month later the 5000 strike is 100 points otm but iv is still 20%.
If I'm recording the iv on a daily basis for this particular strike, a chart would display a flat line, ie 20% only over the relevant time period. But the underlying has shifted.
Therefore, comparatively, we are looking at two different options (aren't we?) - 250 points itm, 100 points otm.
How can the shift in the underlying be reflected via an adjustment to the iv figure? I was thinking along the lines of perhaps incorporating the degree of moneyness but unsure as to the correct method.
This would also help in historical comparisons as to whether an option is cheap or expensive without referring to every underlying level and the degree of itm/otm.
Grant.
I'm having difficulty with this. Maybe some kind soul will take pity.
Assume a 5000 strike is 250 points itm and trading at 20% iv.
A month later the 5000 strike is 100 points otm but iv is still 20%.
If I'm recording the iv on a daily basis for this particular strike, a chart would display a flat line, ie 20% only over the relevant time period. But the underlying has shifted.
Therefore, comparatively, we are looking at two different options (aren't we?) - 250 points itm, 100 points otm.
How can the shift in the underlying be reflected via an adjustment to the iv figure? I was thinking along the lines of perhaps incorporating the degree of moneyness but unsure as to the correct method.
This would also help in historical comparisons as to whether an option is cheap or expensive without referring to every underlying level and the degree of itm/otm.
Grant.