Barramundi
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I have a question regarding figuring out the amount of spread that you pay on a forex trade, most particularly when there is a big difference in the spread between the time you enter and the time you exit the position. For example, if you were to enter a position when the market first opens when spreads are high, and close it several hours later when spreads are normal (smaller), how much have you paid?
I would have thought that the total spread paid could be calculated as:
Spread paid = (Spread paid on entry + Spread paid on exit)/2 irrespective of if you were entering a short or long position.
My reasoning is that you are buying at the ask, and selling at the bid, and the order is not important.
My assumption is that the bid and ask prices are approximately equidistant from a central, let's call it a 'market' price. If, as I am told, my broker is offering me the best bid and ask prices from about 10 banks, I would think this assumption is roughly valid.
For example, if you were to go short when the bid/ask spread was 0.9990/1.0010, the spread is 20 pips and you entered at 0.9990. I assume there is a 'market' price of 1.0000. Let's say the market is either flat or returns to the same place several hrs later. The bid/ask spread is now 0.9995/1.0005, the spread is 10 pips and you exit at 1.0005. You have paid 15 pips in spread, which is 1.0005-0.9990 or (20 + 10)/2.
Now I have just watched a video from an educational body, which says that if you are going long, the spread is taken out on entry. Therefore you must watch the spread and don't enter if it is greater than 7. But if you are going short, the spread is taken out on exit, therefore you should take no notice of it at entry, as it is only the spread when you exit that matters.
This makes no sense to me, as I am always buying the ask and selling the bid, and therefore it seems only logical that the spread at both times, regardless of the trade direction, are of importance. I cannot understand how the spread can be 'taken out' on either the entry or the exit.
Another way of looking at how ludicrous the statement from them seems, is if I was to go long, entering at the ask, with variable spreads. Suddenly there was a market announcement, and the market didn't really go anywhere, but the bid/ask spread increased dramatically due to lack of liquidity. I would be stopped out when the bid price dropped to my stop (sell market) level. Therefore, the spread amount must be important at the exit level of a long position as that alone caused the exit in this example.
Am I missing something or are do these 'forex experts' have it blatantly wrong?
I would have thought that the total spread paid could be calculated as:
Spread paid = (Spread paid on entry + Spread paid on exit)/2 irrespective of if you were entering a short or long position.
My reasoning is that you are buying at the ask, and selling at the bid, and the order is not important.
My assumption is that the bid and ask prices are approximately equidistant from a central, let's call it a 'market' price. If, as I am told, my broker is offering me the best bid and ask prices from about 10 banks, I would think this assumption is roughly valid.
For example, if you were to go short when the bid/ask spread was 0.9990/1.0010, the spread is 20 pips and you entered at 0.9990. I assume there is a 'market' price of 1.0000. Let's say the market is either flat or returns to the same place several hrs later. The bid/ask spread is now 0.9995/1.0005, the spread is 10 pips and you exit at 1.0005. You have paid 15 pips in spread, which is 1.0005-0.9990 or (20 + 10)/2.
Now I have just watched a video from an educational body, which says that if you are going long, the spread is taken out on entry. Therefore you must watch the spread and don't enter if it is greater than 7. But if you are going short, the spread is taken out on exit, therefore you should take no notice of it at entry, as it is only the spread when you exit that matters.
This makes no sense to me, as I am always buying the ask and selling the bid, and therefore it seems only logical that the spread at both times, regardless of the trade direction, are of importance. I cannot understand how the spread can be 'taken out' on either the entry or the exit.
Another way of looking at how ludicrous the statement from them seems, is if I was to go long, entering at the ask, with variable spreads. Suddenly there was a market announcement, and the market didn't really go anywhere, but the bid/ask spread increased dramatically due to lack of liquidity. I would be stopped out when the bid price dropped to my stop (sell market) level. Therefore, the spread amount must be important at the exit level of a long position as that alone caused the exit in this example.
Am I missing something or are do these 'forex experts' have it blatantly wrong?