The following trades were placed using CFD's and Options through a spread bet company.
Yesterday I closed a trade that probably shows my inexperience. Although, in hindsight, I have some idea as to why the strategy went the way it did I would appreciate the opinions of those with greater experience than myself.
I purchased some equity four weeks ago. Two weeks later the share price rose significantly so I placed a Fence around the current price to lock in my gains .
I bought 1 put below my current price (at 70) and sold a call (at 80)above, both expired in September. My understanding was that my upside would be capped at the strike price of the call (80) and my downside protected at the strike price of the put, 70.
I mistakenly believed the spread for the options wouldn't rise significantly whilst the share price remained within the two strikes, I thought the price of one would counteract the other.
The original spread was 2.75. When I tried to close the position the broker quoted me 6.5. The broker was trying to close the position by individually removing the options. As I have some options knowledge I was able to point out that he had to remove the trade as a strategy, luckily he accepted my arguement and removed the strategy at half his original quote, 3.25.
I need clarity on the following points:
1) I closed the entire position when the share price hit 79. Should I have waited until it went above 80? Would it have made a huge difference. What is the ideal time to close the collar?
2) When I sold the equity position the broker told me I basically had a naked short position. Is that right? I believed one option was off setting the other.
3) I appreciate the adverse affects of time value on the price of my options but I thought one options time value would mitigate the other's. Why wasn't this the case?
4) Similiarly. When I entered the trade the implied volatility was very high, 60%+. Again I thought the sold option would mitigate the adverse affects of buying an option when IV was high. Why wasn't this the case?
5) Do you believe the broker acted unethically when he quoted me the 6.5 spread?
I should point out that this wasn't a losing trade, I just didn't make the percentage gain I had calculated. If I had accepted the broker's original quote's I wouldn't have benefitted at all from a 13% rise in the share price.
Apologies for the length of the post. Any answers greatly appreciated.
Kind regards
Marcus.
Yesterday I closed a trade that probably shows my inexperience. Although, in hindsight, I have some idea as to why the strategy went the way it did I would appreciate the opinions of those with greater experience than myself.
I purchased some equity four weeks ago. Two weeks later the share price rose significantly so I placed a Fence around the current price to lock in my gains .
I bought 1 put below my current price (at 70) and sold a call (at 80)above, both expired in September. My understanding was that my upside would be capped at the strike price of the call (80) and my downside protected at the strike price of the put, 70.
I mistakenly believed the spread for the options wouldn't rise significantly whilst the share price remained within the two strikes, I thought the price of one would counteract the other.
The original spread was 2.75. When I tried to close the position the broker quoted me 6.5. The broker was trying to close the position by individually removing the options. As I have some options knowledge I was able to point out that he had to remove the trade as a strategy, luckily he accepted my arguement and removed the strategy at half his original quote, 3.25.
I need clarity on the following points:
1) I closed the entire position when the share price hit 79. Should I have waited until it went above 80? Would it have made a huge difference. What is the ideal time to close the collar?
2) When I sold the equity position the broker told me I basically had a naked short position. Is that right? I believed one option was off setting the other.
3) I appreciate the adverse affects of time value on the price of my options but I thought one options time value would mitigate the other's. Why wasn't this the case?
4) Similiarly. When I entered the trade the implied volatility was very high, 60%+. Again I thought the sold option would mitigate the adverse affects of buying an option when IV was high. Why wasn't this the case?
5) Do you believe the broker acted unethically when he quoted me the 6.5 spread?
I should point out that this wasn't a losing trade, I just didn't make the percentage gain I had calculated. If I had accepted the broker's original quote's I wouldn't have benefitted at all from a 13% rise in the share price.
Apologies for the length of the post. Any answers greatly appreciated.
Kind regards
Marcus.