Vara La Fey
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I think in terms of plays. To wit:
In real estate, there is (or was) an angle called the "double-close". Ex: I have no money to buy a house, but I can still write a purchase contract to buy one at 150k, then write a sales contract for someone else to buy it at 200k. Both closings happen at one sitting, but in a very specific order: the title co takes my buyer's 200k and passes 150k of it to my seller, leaving 50k with me. I controlled a house I couldn't buy, and all is done as agreed.
Now let's say I have no money to buy 100 shares of XYZ, but I can buy a call on them at 50 (their current share price), then write (and sell) another call on them at 55. Next week XYZ goes there and my option buyer executes. If a brokerage "double-closes" this in the same order as in real estate, then my buyer's exercise of 5500 pays for my own exercise of 5000, leaving 500 with me. I controlled 100 shares I couldn't buy, and all is done as agreed. (I think.)
I'm not entirely sure it would offer any advantage over merely selling the $50 call I already own. But if I could buy a LEAPS at current share price (unlikely?), I could theoretically write a call on it every week/month until 1) XYZ drops below my strike price, 2) someone exercises and we double-close, or 3) I sell it and make my money that way.
Will a broker do these double-closes? Will the SEC allow it between consenting adults?
Thanks.
In real estate, there is (or was) an angle called the "double-close". Ex: I have no money to buy a house, but I can still write a purchase contract to buy one at 150k, then write a sales contract for someone else to buy it at 200k. Both closings happen at one sitting, but in a very specific order: the title co takes my buyer's 200k and passes 150k of it to my seller, leaving 50k with me. I controlled a house I couldn't buy, and all is done as agreed.
Now let's say I have no money to buy 100 shares of XYZ, but I can buy a call on them at 50 (their current share price), then write (and sell) another call on them at 55. Next week XYZ goes there and my option buyer executes. If a brokerage "double-closes" this in the same order as in real estate, then my buyer's exercise of 5500 pays for my own exercise of 5000, leaving 500 with me. I controlled 100 shares I couldn't buy, and all is done as agreed. (I think.)
I'm not entirely sure it would offer any advantage over merely selling the $50 call I already own. But if I could buy a LEAPS at current share price (unlikely?), I could theoretically write a call on it every week/month until 1) XYZ drops below my strike price, 2) someone exercises and we double-close, or 3) I sell it and make my money that way.
Will a broker do these double-closes? Will the SEC allow it between consenting adults?
Thanks.