jthetrader
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Apologies in advance if this is in the wrong sub-forum.
My question is fairly simple, though I'm sure any answers won't be simple. How much 'loose change' do market participants drop in your view? I know it is a widely held view that capturing arbitrage opportunities is difficult, or is even said to be impossible for those without the necessary technology (and the requisite technology is so expensive to develop due to the high salaries paid to the designers); so it is possible for someone with a keen eye for the markets, a good understanding of how algorithmic trading machines work and all the available public information to exploit enough arbitrage opportunities to be able to generate consistently good, market neutral returns?
Could you run a fund which delivered consistent 15-20% per annum returns on a large capital base simply by exploiting the technical inefficiencies of the market, rather than by assuming a position on the the general movement of the economy or a certain industry?
My question is fairly simple, though I'm sure any answers won't be simple. How much 'loose change' do market participants drop in your view? I know it is a widely held view that capturing arbitrage opportunities is difficult, or is even said to be impossible for those without the necessary technology (and the requisite technology is so expensive to develop due to the high salaries paid to the designers); so it is possible for someone with a keen eye for the markets, a good understanding of how algorithmic trading machines work and all the available public information to exploit enough arbitrage opportunities to be able to generate consistently good, market neutral returns?
Could you run a fund which delivered consistent 15-20% per annum returns on a large capital base simply by exploiting the technical inefficiencies of the market, rather than by assuming a position on the the general movement of the economy or a certain industry?