scose-no-doubt
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trying to get my head around something here so anyone who can be bothered, please consider the following hypothetical.
You work for a bank and a new client who is trying to expand their overseas operations call you to place an money market hedge to lock in what they believe to be a favourable rate for their projects.
The client trades on 50:1 leverage for cash flow purposes.
The sh1t hits the fan due to some unforeseeable event, the client goes belly up and the bank has no claim to what little assets remain after liquidation.
To make matters worse, the hedge was a terrible call and the FX cross tumbles due some bad economic news.
Would the bank also be leveraged when it took the trade and what would be the next step?
You work for a bank and a new client who is trying to expand their overseas operations call you to place an money market hedge to lock in what they believe to be a favourable rate for their projects.
The client trades on 50:1 leverage for cash flow purposes.
The sh1t hits the fan due to some unforeseeable event, the client goes belly up and the bank has no claim to what little assets remain after liquidation.
To make matters worse, the hedge was a terrible call and the FX cross tumbles due some bad economic news.
Would the bank also be leveraged when it took the trade and what would be the next step?